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Last updated 3:48 AM on 10/25/24
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56 Terms

1
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What is the purpose of the rudder on an airplane?

Control yaw.

2
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What is the angle of attack?

The angle between the chord line of the wing and the relative wind.

3
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What causes an airplane (except a T-tail) to pitch nose down when power is reduced?

The downwash on the elevators from the propeller slipstream is reduced and elevator effectiveness is reduced.

4
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Loading an airplane to the most aft CG will cause the airplane to be...

Less stable at all speeds.

5
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When does P-factor cause the airplane to yaw to the left?

When at high angles of attack.

6
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What is the approximate weight of 3300 pounds at 30 degrees?

3960 pounds.

7
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Figure 72 shows how many 15 feet at 120 mph?

2

8
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In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the west if

A right turn is entered from a north heading.

9
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In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the east if

A left turn is entered from a north heading.

10
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If the pitot tube and outside vents become clogged, which instruments would be affected?

The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator.

11
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What is the full flap operating range for the airplane?

55 to 100 knots.

12
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Which color identifies the power-off stalling speed in a specified configuration?

The lower limit of the green arc.

13
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What is true altitude?

The vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level.

14
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What is density altitude?

The pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature.

15
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Under what condition is indicated altitude the same as true altitude?

When the sea level is under standard conditions.

16
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If a flight is made from an area of high pressure into an area of lower pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate...

Higher than the actual altitude above sea level.

17
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What does a turn coordinator provide an indication of?

Movement of the aircraft about the yaw and roll axes.

18
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What is a benefit of flying with a glass flight deck?

Situational awareness is increased.

19
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An aircraft equipped with an electric flight display can...

Offer new capabilities and simplify the basic flying task.

20
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What is an advantage of a constant speed propeller?

Permits the pilot to select the blade angle for the most efficient performance.

21
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During preflight in cold weather, crankcase breather lines should receive special attention because they are susceptible to being clogged by...

Ice from crankcase vapors that have condensed and subsequently frozen.

22
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Area C on the airport depicted is classified as a...

Closed taxiway.

23
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Figure 65 identifies which signs where aircraft are prohibited from entering?

Sign D.

24
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What does the outbound destination sign identify?

Identifies the direction to take-off runways.

25
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What purpose does the taxiway location sign serve?

Identifies the taxiway on which an aircraft is located.

26
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The recommended entry position to an airport traffic pattern is...

To enter 45 degrees at midpoint of the downwind leg at traffic pattern altitude.

27
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While operating in Class D airspace, what should each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by visual approach slope indicator maintain?

Maintain An altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing.

28
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Wingtip vortices are created only when an aircraft is...

Developing lift.

29
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When taking off or landing at an airport where heavy aircraft are operating, one should be particularly alert to the hazards of wingtip vortices because this turbulence tends to

sink into the flightpath of aircraft operating below the aircraft generating the turbulence.

30
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Eye movement during daytime collision avoidance scanning should...

Not exceed 10 degrees and view each sector at least 1 second.

31
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What procedure is recommended when climbing or descending VFR on an airway?

Execute gentle banks left and right for continuous visual scanning of the airspace

32
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Most midair collision accidents occur during...

Clear days.

33
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Responsibility for collision avoidance in an alert area rests with...

All pilots.

34
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ADS-B equipment is not required for aircraft in flight above 10,000 ft. MSL

while that flight is still being conducted below 2,500 ft AGL.

35
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What minimum pilot certificate is required for operation within Class B airspace?

Private pilot certificate or student pilot certificate with appropriate logbook endorsement.

36
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What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations in Class G airspace 700 feet AGL or below during daylight hours?

1 mile visibility and clear of clouds

37
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During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1200 feet AGL but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance below clouds requirement for VFR flight at night is...

500 feet.

38
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What facility should the pilot contact to receive a special VFR departure clearance in Class D airspace?

Air traffic control tower.

39
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What minimum radio equipment is required for VFR operation within Class B airspace?

Two-way communication equipment, 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter.

40
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What does ACT advise regarding traffic at 12 oโ€™clock?This advisory is relative to your

ground track.

41
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A steady green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal that the pilot.

is cleared to land.

42
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When activated, an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits on...

406 MHz.

43
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Who has the final authority to accept or decline any land and hold short instruction?

Pilot in command.

44
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Where is the โ€œAvailable Landing Distanceโ€ (ALD) data published for an airport that utilizes Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO)?

Special Notices section of the Chart Supplement.

45
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The International Flight Plan, FAA Form 7233-4, is used

for domestic and international flights under VFR and IFR.

46
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How should a VFR flight plan be closed at the completion of the flight at a controlled airport?

The pilot must close the flight plan with the nearest FSS or other FAA facility upon landing.

47
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Upon encountering severe turbulence, what flight condition should the pilot attempt to maintain?

level flight altitude

48
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When executing an emergency approach to land in a single-engine aircraft, it is important to maintain a constant glide airspeed because variation in glide speed will...

nullify all attempts at accuracy in judgment of gliding distance and landing spot

49
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VFR approaches to land at night should be accomplished

the same as during daytime

50
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When taxing with a strong quartering tailwind, which aileron position should be used?

ailerons down on the side from which the wind is bowing

51
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Which aileron position should a pilot generally use when taxiing in short quartering headwinds?

aileron up on the side from which the wind is blowing

52
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Which wind condition would be most critical when taxiing a nosewheel equipped aircraft?

quartering tailwinds.

53
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An aircraft departs an airport in the mountain standard time zone at 1515 MST for a 2-hour 30-minute flight to an airport located in the Pacific standard time zone. What is the estimated time of arrival at the destination airport?

1645

54
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To minimize the side loads placed on the landing gear during touchdown, the pilot should keep the

longitudinal axis of the aircraft parallel to the direction of its motion.

55
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(Refer to areaย C.) How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tailwheel airplane with a left quartering tailwind?

left aileron down, elevator down

56
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An aircraft departs an airport in the central standard time zone at 0930 CST for a 2-hour flight to an airport located in the mountain standard time zone. The landing should be at what time?

1030MST

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