Operator's Exam

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Last updated 1:41 AM on 5/22/26
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46 Terms

1
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Which water system class (letter) for more than 5 MGD?

A

2
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Which water system class (letter) for between 1 and 5 MGD?

B

3
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Which water system class (letter) for between 0.1 and 1 MGD?

C

4
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Which water system class (letter) for less than 0.1 MGD?

D

5
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Which water system class (letter) for distribution/consecutive systems without treatment?

E

6
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Small Dc water systems

  • systems that serve less than ____ individuals or has no more than ___ connections, whichever is ____.

  • the source of water for the systems is exclusively ______

  • requires only _____ AND

  • meets other applicable provided by the Act and is not in violation of the Act or other PA DEP rules and regulations

500, 150, less, groundwater, disinfection

7
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Small system Dn

  • Same criteria as Dc system except water requires ___ treatment

no

8
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water system subclass 1

conventional filtration

9
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water system subclass 2

direct filtration

10
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water system subclass 3

diatomaceous earth filtration

11
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water system subclass 4

slow sand filtration

12
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water system subclass 5

cartridge/ bag filtration

13
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water system subclass 6

membrane filtration

14
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water system subclass 7

corrosion control

15
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water system subclass 8

chemical addition

16
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water system subclass 9

inorganic removal

17
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water system subclass 10

organic removal

18
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water system subclass 11

gaseous chlorine disinfection

19
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water system subclass 12

non-gaseous chlorine disinfection

20
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water system subclass 13

UV disinfection

21
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water system subclass 14

ozone disinfection

22
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SDWA authorizes ___ to set national health-based standards for drinking water to protect against both naturally occurring and man made contaminants that may be found in drinking water. They are divided into ____ and ____ standards.

EPA, primary, secondary

23
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primary dw standards (national primary drinking water standards) - ______ enforceable standards that apply to ___ water systems. Primary standards protect public health by limiting the levels of specific ________ in drinking water

legally, public, contaminants

24
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MRDL

maximum residual disinfectant level

25
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MCL

maximum contaminant level

26
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treatment technique (TT)- requires specific treatment method known to cause a _____ in the level of a contaminant which cannot be practically regulated by using a ______

reduction, MCL

27
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secondary standards - guidelines regulating contaminants that may cause _____ or _____ effects in drinking water

aesthetic, cosmetic

28
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PADEP ____ require monitoring for secondary contaminants and is obligated to require public ____ and ____ if secondary MCLs are violated.

does, notification, treatment

29
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surface water treatment rule - implemented to overcome the shortfalls of the _______. effective in june 1989. _____ has primary enforcement

NPDWS, PADEP

30
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Which operator classes do you need 15 hours of continuing education requirements in the first three years and 30 hours after?

A, B, C

31
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Which operator classes do you need 8 hours of continuing education requirements in the first three years and 15 hours after?

D, E

32
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requirements of the surface drinking water rule

  • requires ______ of all surface supplies, including ____ water under the direct influence of surface water (GUDI) sources

  • establishes treatment technique to achieve at least 99.9% removal or inactivation (3-log removal) of _______ ____ cysts and 99.99% (4-log removal) of _____

  • systems must be operated by “____ _____”

  • establishes criteria for operating without _____

  • establishes CT as a basis for ______

  • establishes suitable filtration technologies and performance criteria for the removal of ___ and _____.

  • establishes _____ requirements and MCLs for combined filter effluent turbidity to monitor the _____ of filtration system

disinfection, ground

giardia lamblia, viruses

qualified personel

filtration

disinfection

turbidity, giardia

sampling, performance

33
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SWTR criteria to operate without filtration

  • system must meet specific source water quality criteria and must still meet the _______ requirements

  • all systems that do not meet the avoidance criteria must provide _____

  • all _____water and ____ sources must provide filtration

disinfection, filtration, surface, GUDI

34
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CT is an abbreviation for “______ Residual Concentration multiplied by _____ time in minutes” and provides a means of determining the level of _____ being achieved under specific operating conditions.

  • in the consideration of ___ circuiting that may occur in some basins, it establishes a methodology for determining effective ___ time for clearwell/basin conditions.

  • it is based on disinfectant used, disinfectant ____, ___ time, water _____, __, and required “log” removal of targeted ____

disinfectant, contact

short, disinfection

concentration, contact, temperature, pH, microbes

35
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interim enhanced surface water treatment rule

  • the rule builds upon the surface water treatment rule to improve control of _____ pathogens and address risk ___-___ with disinfection _____.

  • effective february ___.

  • ____ has primacy for enforcement.

  • only affects systems that use ___ water and serve ____ people or more.

microbial, trade offs, byproducts, 1999, PADEP, surface, 10,000

36
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interim enhanced drinking water rule major provisions

  • systems required to filter under swtr must achieve at least __% (2-log) removal of the ____ cryptosporidium — systems are in compliance with this if they meet the filter ____ _____ requirements are met

  • includes CT benchmarking/profiling requirements to ensure _____ in disinfection practices to reduce to reduce DBPs dont result in _____ disinfection

99, protozoan, effluent turbidity, changes, less

37
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NTU stands for?

Nephelometric Turbidity Unit (standardized unit to measure turbidity)

38
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effluent turbidity?

the cloudiness of water leaving WTP

39
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strengthened filter effluent turbidity requirements (from interim enhanced SWTR)

  • combined filter effluent turbidity must be below ___ NTU in at least __% of the turbidity measurements taken every __ hours.

  • Combined filter effluent must be below __ NTU at all times

  • turbidity must be _____ continuously

0.3, 95, 1, monitored

40
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CT benchmarking requirements (from interim enhanced SWTR)

  • operator must record disinfectant residual, water temp, pH, and contact time ____ during peak ____ flow for one year.

  • this information is used to calculate giardia lamblia _____for each day. _____ average is plotted, which is called the _____ profile

    • lowest level on current profile is called ____

  • if changes are made to disinfection, giardia levels must not be below the current system’s _____ point of profile

daily, hourly

inactivation, monthly, disinfection

benchmark

lowest

41
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all new treated storage tanks/reservoirs must be _____ (per interim enhanced swtr)

covered

42
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states are required to conduct ____ surveys for all systems using surface water or GUDI (per interim enhanced swtr)

sanitary

43
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Long Term 1 Enhanced Surface Water Treatment Rule (LT1)? effective when?

Like Interim enhanced swtr, but for systems of less than 10,000 ppl, 2005

44
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what is LT2 and when effective

Long Term 1 Enhanced Surface Water Treatment Rule, but for more high risk systems (higher crypto in source water). 2009

45
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Stage 1 DBP Rule

  • this rule became active in year ____

  • ___ has primary enforcement

  • the rule sets MCLs for _____ (___) and the total 5 ____ (____)

  • It also sets maximum disinfectant residual concentrations for ____, ____, and _____.


1999, PADEP, trihalomethans (TTHMs), haloacetic acids (HAA5), chlorine, chloramines, chlorine dioxide

46
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stage 1 dep rule major provisions

  • applies to ___ public water systems that add _______during any part of the water treatment process

  • sets MCL for TTHMs at 0.08ppm, and MCL for HAA5 at 0.06ppm.

  • sets chlorite (byproduct of _____) MCL at ____and MCL for bromate at ____