RESP 2230 #5

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Last updated 2:31 PM on 4/14/26
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185 Terms

1
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What are three characteristics of monitoring equipment required by the CAS?

required - in continuous use throughout administration of all anaesthetics

exclusively available for each patient - must be available at each work station so they can be applied without delay

immediately available - must be available to be applied without undue delay

2
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What monitors are required by the CAS during anaesthesia?

  • Pulse ox 

  • BP monitor 

  • ECG 

  • NMBA monitor in NMBA use 

  • Capnography 

  • Agent-specific anaesthetic gas monitor 

  • Vt/airway pressure monitor 

3
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What equipment should be exclusively available for each patient according to the CAS during anaesthesia?

  • stethoscope

  • appropriate lighting

  • cuff pressure manometer

  • thermometer

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What equipment should be immediately available according to the CAS during anaesthesia?

invasive hemodynamic monitors

5
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What is the goal of monitoring depth of anaesthesia (DoA)?

  • detecting if patient is too light/at risk of awareness

  • detecting if patient is too deep/at risk of prolonged recovery

  • equipment works the same regardless of patient

  • works the same regardless of anaesthetic modality/meds

6
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What are clinical signs to look for when monitoring DoA?

  • loss of eyelash/eyelid reflexes (barbiturates)

  • pupil reactivity to light - resp pattern (volatile agents)

  • reaction to surgical stimulation - HR, BP, EEG

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What physical examination may be done while monitoring DoA?

IPPA - inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation

8
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What should be monitored during DoA?

  • neurological function/response

  • resp function

  • cardiovascular function

  • renal function

  • neuromuscular function

  • body temperature

  • fluid management

9
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What is Bispectral Index Monitoring (BIS)?

measures DoA through analyzing a patients EEG and converting it to a number representing their awareness

measured during all three phases of GA, allows for adjustment of DoA

may be subject to artifact

10
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What is the BIS ranking scale of patient awareness?

100: awake

60-90: Sedated, may still be aware

45-60: GA

0: flat line EEG

11
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How should respiratory function be monitored for during anaesthesia?

  • rate/depth

  • bilateral chest excursion(?)

  • irregular respirations/breath-holding/apnea

  • hypoxemia/hypercapnia

  • ventilatory volumes

  • airway pressure

  • ABGs, SpO2, Tc monitoring

  • O2 analyzers + capnography

12
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In the absence of CO2 rebreathing during anaesthesia, what do ETCO2 values depend on?

  • adequacy of alv ventilation

  • CO2 production

  • state of pulmonary circulation

13
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How should mild hypercapnia (55) during spont ventilation be interpreted during anaesthesia?

central resp depression from anaesthesia medication/oversedation

14
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How should gradual hypercapnia development during MV be interpreted during anaesthesia?

inappropriate vent settings or leaks in system

15
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How should rapid hypercapnia during adequate MV be interpreted during anaesthesia?

metabolic disturbances - check acid-base status, temperature

equipment issues - CO2 absorber?

16
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How should sudden hypercapnia during intra-abdominal insufflation be interpreted during anaesthesia?

CO2 embolism - potentially life threatening

17
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How should mild hypocapnia during MV be interpreted during anaesthesia?

alveolar hyperventilation, metabolic state (hyperthermia, hyperthyroidism)

18
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How should a sudden, unexpected decrease in ETCO2 be interpreted during anaesthesia?

circuit disconnect, cardiac arrest/pulmonary embolism?

19
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What should be monitored cardiovascularly in every patient under anaesthesia?

pulse and BP every 5 min

  • indicates DoA

  • agents may alter function

20
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What are indications of invasive CV monitoring in patients under anaesthesia?

  • major cardiac, thoracic, or neurosurgical procedures

  • large fluid shifts are anticipated

  • critically ill patients

  • inaccurate NIBP

  • controlled hypotension

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What invasive CV monitoring may be done in patients under anaesthesia?

  • Arterial BP

  • swan-ganz catheter

  • central line

  • TEE

22
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What should be monitored to determine renal function in patients under anaesthesia?

  • urine output

  • stimulation of ADH by opioids and stress

  • to be interpreted alongside cardiac function

23
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What should be monitored to determine neuromuscular function in patients under anaesthesia?

  • twitching diaphragm, skeletal muscle activity on ECG (consider muscle relaxant)

  • return of neuromuscular function is signaled by onset of spont ventilation

24
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What is the purpose of peripheral nerve stimulation in patients under anaesthesia?

  • estimates muscle contraction during anaesthesia

  • electrical stimulation of ulnar, facial, or lateral popliteal nerve

  • supramaximal stimulus applied

  • differentiates type of block

  • determines block magnitude

  • determines degree of recovery

25
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What are the characteristics of the twitch mode of peripheral nerve stimulation?

  • square wave stimulus (0.1-0.2 ms)

  • apply repeatedly, before and after dose of relaxant

26
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What are the characteristics of the train of four (TOF) mode of peripheral nerve stimulation?

  • 4 stimuli at 2hz, applied over 2s

  • 3 twitches = 70% block

  • 2 = 80%

  • 1 = 90%

  • none = 100%

27
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What are the characteristics of the tetanus mode of peripheral nerve stimulation?

  • most sensitive

  • 50-100hz detects minor residual block

  • painful when awake

28
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What are the characteristics of the post-tetanus mode of peripheral nerve stimulation?

  • assesses deep degrees of block by non-depolarizing agents

  • twitch applied, then tetanus, then single twitches until response disappears

29
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How does a non-depolarizing block repond in nerve stimulation?

  • lower twitch height, fades gradually

  • similar fade in twitch height when TOF is applied

  • unsustained response to tetanus stimulus

  • transient increase in twitch response during post-tetanus facilitation

30
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How does a depolarizing block repond in nerve stimulation?

  • decreased twitch height that does not fade

  • no fade with TOF

  • sustained tetanus

  • no post-tetanus facilitation

31
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What occurs to thermoregulation in patients under GA?

thermoregulation is lost - difference between core and peripheral temp is related to CO and vasoconstriction

32
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What are the 4 mechanisms of heat loss in patients? How do they work?

  • radiation - Most common, transfer of heat to surrounding surfaces not in contact with patient (open surgical site)

  • conduction - Loss of heat of body to object in contact with body (warm pt on cold operating table) 

  • convection - Heat loss due to air currents over the body (warm pt in cold drafty room) 

  • evaporation - Loss of heat due to cold dry air entering body (no humidified air in ETT) 

33
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What impact may hypothermia have in patients under GA?

  • alteration in drug metabolism

  • reduced blood clotting

  • cardiac arrhythmias

  • decreased LOC

  • shivering - increased O2 consumption

34
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What patients are most at risk for hypothermia

  • Burn patients 

  • Neonates 

  • Elderly 

  • Long surgery with open abdomen 

  • Spinal cord injury 

35
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How can hypothermia be prevented in patients under GA?

  • warm room

  • cover patient whenever possible

  • forced air blankets

  • fluid warmers

36
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What is the difference between central and peripheral compartments in accordance with thermoregulation?

central/core: brain and organs, accounts for 2/3 of body heat - maintain within 1C

peripheral: limbs, skin, SC tissue, accounts for 1/3 of body heat - ranges from 2-3C below core but can drop up to 20 below

37
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How does anaesthesia impact the bodies thermoregulation?

  • vasoconstriction maintains core to peripheral temp gradient

  • anaesthesia induction = loss of vasoconstrictor tone

  • vasodilation occurs - heat flows down concentration gradient from core to periphery

  • results in mild core hypothermia

38
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How can shivering impact heat production?

increase it up to 60x normal

39
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How do neonates produce heat?

presence of round fat replaces need for shivering

40
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What is the primary cause of heat loss during surgery? What else may impact this?

radiation is most common, but convection and evaporation are also common

41
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How does the body react to a decrease in core temp?

  • vasoconstriction, followed by shivering (regulated by hypothalamus)

  • shivering normally inhibited by impulses from heat-sensitive area in hypothalamus

  • cold impulses exceed a certain rate - excess signals are sent to the spinal cord

  • results in increased skeletal muscle tone

42
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How does GA impact thermoregulation?

  • increased heat-response thresholds

  • decreased cold-response thresholds

mild hypothermia

  • initial rapid decrease in core temp (1C in 30min)

  • slower, linear decrease to 35-34 over following 2 hours

  • core temp plateau

43
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How does RA impact thermoregulation?

  • redistribution of body heat from core to periphery

  • plateau phase does not occur due to blocked vasoconstriction

  • heat lost continues throughout

44
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What are possible complications of peri-operative hypothermia?

  • reduction in BMR

  • resp fatigue

  • reduced oxygen demand - good in cardiac surgery

  • increased risk of wound infection

  • platelet function reduces = greater blood loss

  • prolonged drug action

  • patients will recall being cold

45
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How may peri-operative hypothermia be avoided?

  • pre-emptive skin warming - removes gradient of heat loss via skin, 1hr minimum

  • insulation with single layer will reduce skin heat loss by 30%

  • HMEs

  • warmed IV fluids

  • forced air warming blankets

46
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What are the characteristics of post-anaesthetic shivering?

  • up to 65% of GA patients, 35% of RA

  • detectable tremor of the face, jaw, head, trunk, or extremities lasting 15s or longer

  • not always a sign of hypothermia, however it is a common cause

  • pharmacological treatment

47
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What is the average daily fluid lost in adults?

2.5L

48
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Approximately how much intracellular fluid (ICF) is in an adult body? Extracellular fluid (ECF)?

ICF: 28L

ECF: 14L

49
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What peri-operative fluid considerations should be made?

  • pre-existing deficit: pre-op fasting + prep

  • maintenance fluid: daily water and electrolyte loss

  • third space loss: edema, surgical trauma

  • bleeding

50
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How is blood loss estimated during surgery?

  • weigh discarded sponges

  • measure vol of blood in suction canister

  • estimate red cell loss using Hgb

51
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A blood loss of what during surgery will require a blood transfusion?

> 15%

52
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Blood transfusion will depend on the measurement of what?

level of hgb

53
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What fluids may be administered during anaesthesia?

crystalloid

  • 0.9% Ringer’s lactate

  • dextrose solutions

  • hypertonic saline (7% NaCl)

colloid

  • starches

  • blood products

  • albumin

54
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What are the determining factors of a blood transfusion?

  • acuity - hgb levels

  • potential for ongoing bleeding

  • pre-existing medical conditions increase risk of anemia

55
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What are possible complications of blood transfusions?

  • disease transmission

  • metabolic abnormalities - electrolytes

  • coagulopathy

  • hypothermia

  • transfusion reactions

    • allergic: incompatible plasma proteins

    • febrile: reaction to donor WBCs

    • hemolytic: accidental use of incompatible blood

56
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What is catabolism?

energy resulting from the breakdown of carbs, protein, and fats

breaks down glucose - glycolysis - aerobic process

  • anaerobic gycolysis = lactic acid build-ip

57
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What is anabolism?

building-up energy as carbs, protein, and fats

58
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What is the result of carbohydrate metabolism?

glucose, carried across cell membrane with insulin

59
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What are the characteristics of protein metabolism?

  • 20-30g/day in absence of protein ingestion (ie. starvation, post-op)

  • if carb and fat stores are depleted, can be >100g/day

  • results in rapid tissue function decline

60
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What are the characteristics of lipid metabolism?

  • lipids: fats, oils, steroids, cholesterol

  • major source of energy, provides electrical insulation for nerve conduction

61
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What are the characteristics of lipoproteins?

  • comprised of fatty acids broken down in the liver

  • byproducts of breakdown go unused = ketone formation

    • diffuse into circulation + used as energy by tissues

    • common conditions: diabetes, starvation alcoholism

    • high ketones = ketoacidosis

62
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How does body temperature impact the BMR?

14% increase per 1C increase

63
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How does GA impact BMR?

Significantly reduces rate

64
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How does RA impact BMR?

Less impact than GA

changes to heat balance and peripheral metabolism

65
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What are the characteristics of the neuroendocrine stress response during surgery?

stimulated by pain, may be diminished during RA, results in metabolism of muscle and fat

  • hyperglycemia + insulin intolerance

  • impaired wound healing

  • fat metabolism = increased fatty acids in blood

  • increased myocardial oxygen demand

    • decreased O2 to the heart

  • increased blood clotting

  • decreased FRC from post-op pain

  • reduced GI motility

66
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What are the characteristics of the cytokine stress response during surgery?

resulting from nerve injury to a limb

  • inflammation relative to degree of tissue damage

  • prolonged wound healing and recovery

    • increased post-op infection risk

67
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How does GA and RA impact the stress response?

GA - no impact

RA - reduced/eliminated neuroendocrine response, cytokine response reduced due to limited surgical insicion

68
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What are the most common complications during anaesthesia?

  • cardiac arrhythmias

  • hypotension

  • hypoventilation

  • med reactions

69
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What are common causes of anaesthesia complications?

  • human error

  • equipment failure

  • patient condition

70
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What are possible causes of human error during anaesthesia?

  • poor working relationships

  • varying training levels

  • poor working conditions

  • fatigue

71
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How can anaesthesia complications be avoided?

  • pre-op patient assessment

  • pre-op equipment check

  • pre-op consultation with personnel

  • appropriately trained assisstants

  • appropriate monitor use

  • documentation

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What is the most common respiratory complication during anaesthesia?

partial obstruction during spont or bag-mask ventilation without an OA

73
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What are common causes of laryngospasm during anaesthesia? How might this be treated?

  • most common during airway manipulation and higher LOC

    • or surgical + visceral stimulation

treat

  • remove stimuli

  • 100% O2 and clear airway

  • increase anaesthesia depth

  • ventilation

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What are common causes of bronchospasm during anaesthesia? How might this be treated?

  • underlying disease, recent resp infection, smoking hx

  • due to: inhalational induction, OA insertion, carina stimulation, beta-blocker use

treat

  • prevent hypoxemia

  • deepen anaesthesia

  • bronchodilators

75
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What are common ventilation complications during anaesthesia?

  • hypercapnia

  • hypocapnia

  • pneumothorax

  • atelectasis

76
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What are common causes of hypercapnia during anaesthesia? How might this be treated?

  • increased CO2: pyrexia, malignant hyperthermia, shivering, inadequate fresh gas flow, exhausted CO2 absorber

  • leads to: tachycardia, sweating, cardiac ectopics, increased ICP

  • NEED ADEQUATE VENTILATION

77
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What are common causes of hypocapnia during anaesthesia? How might this be treated?

  • mechanical hyperventilation

  • leads to: vasoconstriction, decreased cerebral perfusion, decreased CO

    • may have delayed onset of spontaneous respirations until PaCO2 is normalized

  • NEED ADEQUATE VENTILATION

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What are common causes of pneumothorax during anaesthesia? How might this be treated?

  • puncture during CV catheterization, thoracic surgery, nerve block, or high ventilatory pressure

  • note: N2O will diffuse into air-filled spaces quicker, rapidly increasing pneumo size

  • clinical signs: decreased CO, tachycardia, uneven chest excursion, hypoxia, increased ventilating pressure

  • needle decom, chest tube, DISCONTINUE N2O

79
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What are common causes of hypertension during anaesthesia? How might this be treated?

  • intraoperative when MAP >25% pre-op value

  • due to: inadequate anaesthesia, surgical stimulation, airway manipulation

  • at risk for: cerebral ischemia, infarction, or hemorrhage

  • manage: pre-op tx, fix causes, meds

80
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What are common causes of hypotension during anaesthesia? How might this be treated?

  • common with d/t anaesthesia meds

  • increased risk of concerrent hypovolemia and hemorrhage

  • treat: fix hypovolemia, IV fluids, alter meds

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What are common causes of hypovolemia during anaesthesia? How might this be treated?

  • loss of fluids

  • treat: fluid, blood/blood product transfusions

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What are common causes of hemorrhage during anaesthesia? How might this be treated?

  • pre-existing or intraopoerative blood loss

  • treat: blood transfusion

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What are common cardiovascular complications during anaesthesia?

  • bradycardia: increased vagal tone, opioids

  • tachycardia: peri-op stress response, burns, sepsis, fever

  • arrhythmia: cardio-resp causes, metabolic disturbance, surgical stimulation

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What are common causes of thromboembolus during anaesthesia? How might this be treated?

  • typically post-op risk due to DVT of legs/pelvis

  • risk factors: immobilization, pelvic/limb surgery, venous stasis/trauma, smoking

  • treat: risks pre-op, compression stockings

    • during surgery: 100% O2, bronchodilation, inotropes, thrombolytic tx

85
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What are common causes of gas embolus during anaesthesia?

  • gas enters via surgical opening, venous catehter, laparascopic surgery

  • enters RA and blocks circulation

  • clinically: sudden decreased ETCO2 then hypoxemia, increased pulm art pressure, ECG changes

    • depends on vol of gas and rate of entry

86
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What are common causes of fat embolus during anaesthesia? How might this be treated?

  • dislodged from long bones, can onset up to 48h post-op

  • clinically: SOB, hypoexemia, hemogynamic changes

87
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What are common causes of awareness during anaesthesia? How might this be treated?

  • inadequate anaesthesia depth

  • risk factors: emergency surgery, paralysis, hypotensive periods IV agents

  • clinically: sweating, tachycardia, tears, pupil reactivity

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What are common causes of CNS ischemia during anaesthesia? How might this be treated?

  • disrupted oxygenation and perfusion = ischemia/infarction

  • risk factors: pre-existing cerebrovascular disease

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What are common causes of hypothermia during anaesthesia?

  • prolonged procedures

  • extensive incisions

  • blood loss

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What are the characteristics of malignant hyperthermia during anaesthesia?

  • hypermetabolic state induced by volatile anaesthesia and succinylcholine = rhabdomyosis

    • inherited disorder, more common in pediatrics

  • up to 80% mortality

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What is the pathophysiology of malignant hyperthermia?

  • Ca2 channel receptor mutations on sarcoplasmic reticulum of skeletal muscle is present

    • abnormal Ca2 release and re-uptake by sarcoplasmic reticulum

  • chain of events:

    • muscle contraction

    • ATP depletion

    • increased O2 consumption and CO2 production

    • metabolic acidosis

    • heat production

    • cell breakdown

92
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What are the signs of a malignant hyperthermia crisis?

in order:

  1. increased HR

  2. tachypnea

  3. increased ETCO2

  4. muscle rigidity

  5. mottling/cyanosis

  6. hyperthermia

additionally:

  • cardiac arrhythmia = K release

  • severe combined acidosis

  • coagulopathy

  • Acute Renal Failure (due to rhabdo, myoglobin leaks into bloodstream and obstructs tubules)

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How can a malignant hyperthermia crisis be managed during anaesthesia?

  • d/c all volatile agents, 100% O2

  • maintain IV anaesthesia

    • administer Dantrolene - reduce muscle tone and metabolism

  • active cooling, monitor core temp

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How should malignant hyperthermia be tested for?

caffeine-halothane contracture test (CHCT)

  • compares fresh muscle tissue when exposed to c-h against non-MH muscle response

    • if fresh tissue is higher - positive

  • all first-degree relatives of a patient with MH

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How should a patient with known malignant hyperthermia be managed in surgery?

  • IV/RA anaesthesia

  • ventilate with:

    • specially reserved MH anaesthetic machine

    • machine with vaporizers removed and flushed with 100% O2 for several hours

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What are the characteristics of the “recovery period” of anaesthesia?

  • begins as soon as patient leaves operating table

  • patient may still be unconscious/semi-conscious

  • patient may still have:

    • reduced CO and BP

    • hypovolemia

    • hypertension as consciousness is regained

    • hypoventilation from residual anaesthesia

    • N/V

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What is typically monitored post-op?

  • vitals

  • urine output (major surgery)

  • wounds/drainage

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What should be reported by anaesthetist to recovery room staff?

  • pre-existing medical problems

  • nature/extent of surgical procedure

  • anaesthetic techinique, meds, regional block

  • fluids, blood loss + replacement

  • any unexpected events

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What factors may impact patient regaining consciousness?

  • meds used

  • pain - more pain = faster recoveru

  • hypoxemia, hypercapnia

  • hypotension

  • hypothermia

  • hyperglycemia

  • cerebral damage

  • confusion

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Respiratory post-op complications are related to what?

  • FRC reduction

  • surgical site

  • patient condition: age, ASA classification