biomi!

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Last updated 2:10 AM on 4/8/26
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178 Terms

1
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What is the core genome?

Genes shared by all members of a species; defines who the organism is

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What is the accessory genome?

Extra genes only some strains carry; determines what the organism can do (e.g., virulence factors)

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How do pathogenic and non-pathogenic E. coli differ?

Pathogenic strains carry extra virulence factor genes in their accessory genome

4
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What is quorum sensing?

Chemical signaling between bacteria; when signal reaches a threshold, the whole group acts together

5
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What is the Human Microbiome Project (HMP)?

First large-scale NIH-funded project to map the microbiome at all body sites

6
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What determines which microbes dominate at a body site?

The environmental conditions at that site (pH, oxygen, moisture, nutrients)

7
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What is dental plaque?

A biofilm on tooth surfaces formed when Streptococcus spp. produce a polysaccharide capsule matrix

8
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What is the "hedgehog" structure in dental plaque?

A specific spatial arrangement of Streptococcus and Corynebacterium in dental plaque

9
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What is the critical pH for enamel dissolution?

~5.3; below this, acid from lactic acid bacteria dissolves tooth enamel

10
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What systemic diseases are linked to poor oral microbiome health?

Gingivitis, colon cancer, diabetes, respiratory infections, cardiovascular disease, Alzheimer's, Parkinson's

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What is Helicobacter pylori?

A spiral-shaped bacterium living in the stomach lining; discovered in 1984; causes gastric ulcers

12
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Why was the stomach thought to be sterile before H. pylori's discovery?

Its very low pH was believed to prevent any bacterial survival

13
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What is citizen science?

Data collection and analysis by members of the general public, often alongside professional scientists

14
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Who was Joy Milne and why is she significant?

A citizen scientist who could smell Parkinson's disease before clinical diagnosis; led to microbial VOC research

15
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How many fungal species are estimated to exist?

Up to 5.1 million; only ~100,000 have been formally described

16
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What is a hypha?

A long, branching filament produced when a fungal spore germinates

17
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What is a mycelium?

A network of many branching hyphae; the main body of a fungus

18
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What is a fungal fruiting body?

A reproductive structure (e.g., a mushroom) that produces and disperses spores

19
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What is the fungal life cycle?

Spore, germination, hyphae, mycelium, fruiting body, new spores; involves asexual and sexual reproduction

20
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What antibiotic comes from a fungus?

Penicillin, produced by Penicillium chrysogenum; kills Staphylococcus aureus

21
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What drugs besides antibiotics are derived from fungi?

Immunosuppressants and statins (anti-cholesterol drugs)

22
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What are mycorrhizae?

Symbiotic fungal networks on plant roots that help absorb nutrients; part of the Wood Wide Web

23
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What is the Wood Wide Web?

The underground fungal network through which plants exchange nutrients and chemical signals

24
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What is absorptive nutrition in fungi?

Secreting digestive enzymes into a substrate externally, then absorbing the broken-down molecules

25
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What is ergosterol?

The main sterol in fungal cell membranes; the primary target of antifungal drugs

26
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Why can't antibiotics treat fungal infections?

Fungi are eukaryotes; antibiotics targeting prokaryotic structures do not affect them

27
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What are the three main classes of antifungal drugs?

Azoles (Monistat), Allylamines (Lamisil), Amphotericin B (prescription only); all target ergosterol

28
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What are mycoses?

Fungal diseases; examples include jock itch, athlete's foot, vaginal candidiasis, fungal nail infections

29
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What is mucormycosis?

A severe fungal infection that occurs almost exclusively in immunocompromised patients

30
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What are the main pathogens causing viral outbreaks in swimming pools?

Adenovirus, enterovirus, norovirus, hepatitis A; mostly enteric viruses

31
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What percentage of viral waterborne outbreaks occur in swimming pools?

48% in pools; 40% in lakes/ponds; 12% in other water sources

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What is the main cause of pool-related outbreaks?

Failure in disinfection; inadequate or inconsistent chlorine levels

33
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What are refugia in pool microbiology?

Protected microenvironments (biofilms, filters) where microbes survive disinfection and re-emerge

34
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What are indicator organisms in pool water?

Staphylococcus aureus and Enterococcus faecalis; their presence indicates human contamination

35
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Why is cultivation not the best way to count microbes in water?

No universal growth medium exists; not all microbes grow on plates; gives a severe undercount

36
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What is epifluorescence microscopy?

A direct-count method using fluorescent DNA stains and light from above; counts all microbes including unculturable ones

37
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What is DAPI?

A fluorescent DNA stain used since ~1977 for direct microbial counts; non-specific, can stain debris

38
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What is SYBR Green I / SYBR Gold?

Cleaner fluorescent DNA stains used since 1997; standard for counting bacteria and viruses in water

39
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How do you calculate bacterial counts from epifluorescence microscopy?

Count particles per field, back-calculate to total filter area, divide by volume filtered

40
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What is the bacterial density in Cayuga Lake?

10 to 100 million cells per milliliter

41
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Why do inland lakes have more bacteria than the open ocean?

More organic matter (food) supports higher bacterial growth

42
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Is sweat itself odorous?

No; sweat is nearly odorless; bacteria metabolize it into VOCs that cause body odor

43
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What are the three types of sweat glands?

Apocrine (hairy regions, main BO source), Eccrine (cooling), Sebaceous (sebum oil)

44
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Why do apocrine glands cause body odor?

They secrete oily fluid into hairy regions at puberty; bacteria metabolize it into smelly VOCs

45
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What bacterium produces the main armpit odor compound 3M3SH?

Staphylococcus hominis; 3M3SH smells like rotten onions or meat

46
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What VOCs does Corynebacterium produce?

3MSH (sweat and onions), 3M2H (goat-like), HMHA (cumin-like)

47
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What causes smelly feet?

Staphylococcus epidermidis breaks down leucine in sweat into isovaleric acid (cheesy smell)

48
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What is the difference between a deodorant and an antiperspirant?

Deodorant kills bacteria or masks odor; antiperspirant blocks sweat glands using aluminum chloride

49
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What are extrinsic skin microbiome factors?

Hygiene, diet, climate, sunlight, chemical exposure, physical activity, air/water pollution

50
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What are intrinsic skin microbiome factors?

Age, genetics, pigmentation, gender, immunity, hormones, sleep, stress, metabolism

51
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Why does more soap not always mean less body odor?

Over-washing removes beneficial bacteria and disrupts the healthy skin microbiome

52
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Can microbial VOCs be used to detect disease?

Yes; certain diseases produce characteristic VOC profiles in breath and skin

53
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What are the 8 most common STIs?

Syphilis, gonorrhea, chlamydia, trichomoniasis, hepatitis B, HSV, HIV, HPV

54
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What bacterium causes syphilis?

Treponema pallidum

55
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What bacterium causes chlamydia?

Chlamydia trachomatis

56
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What type of bacterium is Treponema pallidum?

A spirochaete; spiral-shaped, gram-negative, with endoflagella; can be anaerobic or microaerophilic

57
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What are the size characteristics of T. pallidum?

0.1 to 0.2 um diameter, 6 to 20 um long; invisible under light microscopy; requires electron microscopy

58
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What is T. pallidum's genome size and what does it lack?

1.1 million base pairs; lacks genes for enzyme cofactors, fatty acids, and nucleosides; obligate pathogen

59
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What are the three stages of syphilis?

Primary (painless chancre), Secondary (rash on palms/soles, systemic symptoms), Tertiary (severe systemic damage)

60
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What are symptoms of secondary syphilis?

Rash on palms and soles, warts, bald spots, fever, swollen lymph nodes, weight loss, nerve/eye/kidney damage

61
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Why is syphilis still prevalent despite being curable?

Stigma, lack of testing, and healthcare barriers keep it spreading

62
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How does T. pallidum enter the body?

Through small skin breaks; reaches lymph nodes within hours causing systemic infection

63
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Why is chlamydia so easily spread?

Most infections are asymptomatic; people spread it without knowing they have it

64
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How does Chlamydia trachomatis evade the immune system?

It is an intracellular pathogen; hides inside host cells to establish chronic infection

65
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What is the microbial ecology of the bedroom?

S. hominis, S. epidermidis (skin), HSV and HPV (viral), C. trachomatis (bacterial STI)

66
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What is a virus?

DNA or RNA inside a protein capsid, sometimes with a lipid envelope; 20 to 500 nm; obligate intracellular parasite

67
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Why can't viruses replicate on their own?

They have no enzymes, ribosomes, or replication machinery; must hijack a host cell

68
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Why are viruses invisible under a standard light microscope?

At 20 to 500 nm they are smaller than the wavelength of visible light (400 to 700 nm)

69
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What is a capsid?

The protein shell that surrounds a virus's genetic material

70
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What is a viral envelope?

A lipid membrane acquired from the host cell during viral budding

71
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What is the difference between enveloped and non-enveloped viruses?

Enveloped: lipid membrane, destroyed by soap. Non-enveloped: protein capsid only, more environmentally resistant

72
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What is the Baltimore classification system?

A system categorizing viruses by genome type and how they produce mRNA; not based on common ancestry

73
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What is viral tropism?

A virus's ability to infect only specific cell types based on receptor compatibility

74
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What cells does HIV infect?

CD4+ T helper cells (T immune cells)

75
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What cells does HPV infect?

Skin and mucosal keratinocytes

76
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What cells does HSV infect?

Skin cells and nerve cells

77
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What cells does SARS-CoV-2 infect?

Lung and gut epithelial cells

78
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What is HPV?

Human Papillomavirus; a dsDNA Group I virus with 150+ types; infects skin and mucosal cells; most common STI

79
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What are high-risk HPV types and what do they cause?

Types 16 and 18; cause cervical, oropharyngeal, anal, vulvar, vaginal, and penile cancers

80
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What are low-risk HPV types and what do they cause?

Types 6 and 11; cause genital warts

81
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Why is HPV so stealthy?

No viremia, no cell death, no inflammation during initial infection; immune system barely triggered

82
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How does HPV cause warts?

Infected basal cells extend out of the skin in massive growth, facilitating viral spread

83
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What cancers does HPV cause?

Oropharyngeal, cervical, anal, vulvar, vaginal, and penile cancers

84
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What is oncogenesis?

The process by which an oncovirus causes cancer by stimulating cell proliferation and suppressing immunity

85
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What is Gardasil and how does it work?

HPV vaccine (2006); targets capsid proteins L1 and L2; only works before exposure

86
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Who should get the HPV vaccine?

Women and men aged 9 to 26; MSMs under 26; must be given before exposure

87
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What is HSV?

Herpes Simplex Virus; large dsDNA virus (120 to 250 kbp, 70 to 150 genes) with glycolipid envelope; HSV-1 (cold sores), HSV-2 (genital herpes)

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What viruses are related to HSV?

Epstein-Barr virus, Cytomegalovirus, Varicella (chicken pox/shingles)

89
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What is herpes gladiatorum?

HSV-1 transmitted between wrestlers via skin-to-skin contact; 34% infection rate at one high school wrestling camp

90
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How does human skin act as a viral barrier?

Outer layer is dead non-dividing cells; viruses like HPV need abrasions to reach dividing basal cells underneath

91
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What is antiretroviral therapy (ART)?

Drug treatment that suppresses HIV replication; does not cure it because the virus hides in a latent reservoir

92
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What is influenza A's genome?

8 negative-sense single-stranded RNA segments; 10 genes; 13.5 kb total

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What do H and N stand for in influenza classification?

H = Hemagglutinin (attachment); N = Neuraminidase (release of new virions)

94
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How many types of H and N proteins exist?

18 H types and 11 N types

95
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What is the function of hemagglutinin (H)?

Binds sugar molecules on lung cell surfaces; determines tissue tropism

96
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What is the function of neuraminidase (N)?

Cleaves sugars on the host cell surface to release newly made virions

97
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Why is influenza A a respiratory pathogen?

H binds sugars abundant on lung cells but scarce elsewhere

98
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What is antigenic drift?

Small mutations of 2 to 3 amino acids in H or N; slight immune evasion; reason for annual flu vaccine updates

99
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What is antigenic shift?

Genome reassortment between human and animal flu strains in a co-infected host; produces a completely new virus with pandemic potential

100
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What is the difference between antigenic drift and shift?

Drift is slow gradual mutation (seasonal flu); shift is sudden genome reshuffling (pandemic risk)