Pharm - Venous Thromboembolism

0.0(0)
Studied by 0 people
call kaiCall Kai
learnLearn
examPractice Test
spaced repetitionSpaced Repetition
heart puzzleMatch
flashcardsFlashcards
GameKnowt Play
Card Sorting

1/104

encourage image

There's no tags or description

Looks like no tags are added yet.

Last updated 7:43 PM on 6/10/26
Name
Mastery
Learn
Test
Matching
Spaced
Call with Kai

No analytics yet

Send a link to your students to track their progress

105 Terms

1
New cards

What does VTE stand for?

Venous thromboembolism

2
New cards

What are the two main components of VTE?

Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism (PE)

<p>Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism (PE)</p>
3
New cards

What is the primary symptom of DVT?

Unilateral leg pain, warmth, swelling, redness

4
New cards

What diagnostic test is used for DVT?

Compression ultrasound (CUS)

<p>Compression ultrasound (CUS)</p>
5
New cards

What is the primary symptom of PE?

Dyspnea, chest pain, tachycardia, syncope, hypoxia

6
New cards

What diagnostic tests are used for PE?

CT pulmonary angiography (CTPA) and V/Q scan

<p>CT pulmonary angiography (CTPA) and V/Q scan</p>
7
New cards

What does D-dimer indicate?

It detects fibrin clot degradation products and is sensitive but not specific for VTE.

8
New cards

What is Virchow's Triad?

A framework for understanding the risk factors for VTE: blood stasis, endothelial injury, and hypercoagulability.

<p>A framework for understanding the risk factors for VTE: blood stasis, endothelial injury, and hypercoagulability.</p>
9
New cards

What are some causes of blood stasis?

Immobility, hospitalization, paralysis, long-haul travel, obesity.

10
New cards

What are some causes of endothelial injury?

Surgery, trauma, indwelling venous catheter, inflammatory bowel disease, infection.

11
New cards

What are some causes of hypercoagulability?

Cancer, antiphospholipid syndrome, factor V Leiden, pregnancy, estrogen use, polycythemia vera.

12
New cards

What is the mechanism of action of unfractionated heparin (UFH)?

Binds antithrombin to inactivate thrombin (IIa) and factor Xa.

<p>Binds antithrombin to inactivate thrombin (IIa) and factor Xa.</p>
13
New cards

What is the preferred anticoagulant for patients with renal failure?

Unfractionated heparin (UFH)

14
New cards

What is the dosing protocol for UFH in prophylaxis?

5,000 units SubQ every 8-12 hours.

15
New cards

What is the mechanism of action of low molecular weight heparin (LMWH)?

Binds antithrombin to primarily inhibit factor Xa with minimal inhibition of thrombin (IIa).

<p>Binds antithrombin to primarily inhibit factor Xa with minimal inhibition of thrombin (IIa).</p>
16
New cards

What is the dosing for enoxaparin (Lovenox) in treatment?

1 mg/kg SubQ every 12 hours or 1.5 mg/kg every 24 hours.

17
New cards

What anticoagulant is contraindicated in patients with a history of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)?

Both unfractionated heparin (UFH) and low molecular weight heparin (LMWH).

18
New cards

What is the mechanism of action of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs)?

They directly inhibit factor Xa or thrombin (IIa).

19
New cards

Name a direct thrombin inhibitor.

Dabigatran (Pradaxa)

20
New cards

What is the role of aspirin in VTE management?

It irreversibly inhibits COX-1 and COX-2, inhibiting platelet aggregation.

<p>It irreversibly inhibits COX-1 and COX-2, inhibiting platelet aggregation.</p>
21
New cards

What are the key monitoring parameters for anticoagulants?

INR, renal function, anti-Xa levels, and complete blood count (CBC).

22
New cards

What is the role of thrombolytic therapy (tPA) in PE?

It is appropriate in massive PE with hemodynamic instability.

23
New cards

What is the primary treatment for acute DVT?

Anticoagulants such as UFH, LMWH, DOACs, or warfarin.

24
New cards

What is the difference between provoked and unprovoked VTE?

Provoked VTE occurs due to identifiable risk factors, while unprovoked VTE occurs without any identifiable cause.

25
New cards

What is the recommended duration of anticoagulation for unprovoked VTE?

Indefinite therapy is often recommended after initial treatment.

26
New cards

What are intermittent pneumatic compression (IPC) devices used for?

They are non-pharmacologic interventions to prevent VTE in at-risk patients.

27
New cards

What is the role of lifestyle modifications in VTE prevention?

They can reduce risk factors associated with VTE, such as obesity and immobility.

28
New cards

What factor does Enoxaparin (Lovenox) inhibit?

Factor Xa and Factor IIa (thrombin)

29
New cards

What factor does Fondaparinux (Arixtra) inhibit?

Factor Xa

30
New cards

True or False: Aspirin is a primary treatment option for VTE.

False

31
New cards

Which anticoagulant can be used in hemodialysis patients?

Dabigatran (Pradaxa)

32
New cards

Which anticoagulant can be used in renal impaired patients?

Apixaban (Eliquis)

33
New cards

What is the mechanism of action of Dabigatran (Pradaxa)?

Directly inhibits Factor IIa (thrombin)

34
New cards

What is the dosing regimen for Dabigatran prophylaxis after knee/hip surgery?

110 mg after surgery, then 220 mg PO daily for 10-35 days

35
New cards

What are common adverse effects of Dabigatran?

Bleeding, dyspepsia, GI bleeds

36
New cards

What is the required lead-in for Dabigatran treatment?

Requires ≥5-day parenteral anticoagulation lead-in

37
New cards

What is the dosing frequency for Apixaban (Eliquis)?

BID (twice daily)

38
New cards

What is the dosing frequency for Rivaroxaban (Xarelto)?

BID for 7 days, then daily

39
New cards

What is the dosing regimen for Edoxaban (Savaysa) in VTE treatment?

15 mg BID for 21 days, then 20 mg once daily

40
New cards

What is the target INR for VTE treatment with Warfarin?

2-3

41
New cards

What is the mechanism of action of Warfarin?

Inhibits vitamin K epoxide reductase, blocking synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors

<p>Inhibits vitamin K epoxide reductase, blocking synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors</p>
42
New cards

What should be monitored when a patient is on Warfarin?

INR (International Normalized Ratio)

43
New cards

What is a significant concern when using Warfarin?

Narrow therapeutic index and numerous drug interactions

44
New cards

What is the effect of increased vitamin K intake on INR?

Decreases INR

45
New cards

What is the effect of CYP3A4 inhibitors on Apixaban?

Increases bleeding risk

46
New cards

What is the preferred anticoagulant for patients with antiphospholipid syndrome?

Warfarin

47
New cards

What should be done if a patient on Warfarin increases vitamin K intake?

Adjust Warfarin dose upward by 10-20% of total weekly dose

48
New cards

What is the clinical scenario for Mr. D with confirmed DVT?

Choose Rivaroxaban for initial management

49
New cards

What is the clinical scenario for Mrs. R with antiphospholipid syndrome?

Increase Warfarin dose due to decreased INR from increased vitamin K intake

50
New cards

What is the dosing regimen for Apixaban in long-term VTE prophylaxis?

2.5 mg PO BID after at least 6 months of treatment

51
New cards

What is the dosing regimen for Edoxaban in long-term VTE prophylaxis?

10 mg daily after 6 months of treatment

52
New cards

What is the risk associated with spinal/epidural hematoma in anticoagulant therapy?

Increased risk of bleeding and complications

53
New cards

What is the effect of renal impairment on the use of Rivaroxaban?

Avoid if CrCl < 15

54
New cards

What is the effect of renal impairment on the use of Edoxaban?

Avoid if CrCl < 15 or > 95

55
New cards

What is the mechanism of action of Alteplase (tPA)?

Converts plasminogen to plasmin, leading to fibrinolysis.

56
New cards

What is the approved dosage of Alteplase for pulmonary embolism?

100 mg IV over 2 hours.

57
New cards

When is anticoagulant therapy preferred over thrombolytics in pulmonary embolism?

In acute hemodynamically stable patients who are not hypotensive (SBP ≥ 90).

58
New cards

What are the absolute contraindications for using Alteplase?

Active internal bleeding, prior intracranial hemorrhage, ischemic CVA <3 months, recent intracranial/spinal surgery, brain cancer, severe uncontrolled hypertension.

59
New cards

What are the major adverse effects of thrombolytic therapy?

Intracranial hemorrhage, cerebrovascular accident (CVA), major gastrointestinal bleed.

60
New cards

What is the scoring system used to assess the probability of Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT)?

4 Ts scoring system.

61
New cards

What does a score of 6-8 on the 4 Ts indicate?

High probability of HIT.

62
New cards

What is the primary complication associated with HIT?

Thrombosis, not just low platelet counts.

63
New cards

What should be done if HIT is suspected?

Stop heparin and start non-heparin anticoagulation.

64
New cards

Which anticoagulant is preferred for patients with renal dysfunction?

Argatroban IV (direct thrombin inhibitor).

65
New cards

What is the recommended duration of anticoagulation for a patient with a provoked VTE?

Minimum of 3 months.

66
New cards

When should a thrombolytic be used for venous thromboembolism (VTE)?

In cases of unstable pulmonary embolism (hypotension).

67
New cards

What is the first-line treatment for DVT and PE according to recent guidelines?

Direct Oral Anticoagulants (DOACs) are generally preferred over warfarin.

68
New cards

What is the typical management for a patient with unprovoked VTE?

Indefinite anticoagulation is recommended due to high recurrence risk.

69
New cards

What are the preferred anticoagulants for pregnant patients?

Unfractionated heparin (UFH) or low molecular weight heparin (LMWH).

70
New cards

What is the recommended approach for switching from warfarin to a DOAC?

Check INR before switching; start DOAC when INR is below the threshold (varies by DOAC).

71
New cards

What is the role of catheter-directed thrombolysis?

Used for submassive pulmonary embolism with lower doses to reduce systemic bleeding risk.

72
New cards

What is the treatment duration for recurrent VTE?

Indefinite anticoagulation is recommended.

73
New cards

What should be monitored in patients on warfarin?

INR levels and signs of bleeding.

74
New cards

What is the significance of the 4 Ts in HIT diagnosis?

It assesses thrombocytopenia, timing, thrombosis, and other causes.

75
New cards

What is the preferred treatment for cancer-associated VTE?

LMWH is historically first-line, but DOACs are now preferred.

76
New cards

What is the main concern regarding anticoagulation reversal?

Intracranial hemorrhage (ICH).

77
New cards

What is the recommended duration of non-heparin anticoagulation for VTE?

At least 3 months.

78
New cards

What should be done for patients with HIT and active bleeding?

Anticoagulation should be reversed and non-heparin alternatives should be used.

79
New cards

What is the role of pneumatic compression stockings in VTE prevention?

Non-pharmacological method for high thrombosis risk patients.

80
New cards

What is the significance of the Serotonin Release Assay (SRA) in HIT?

It confirms the diagnosis of HIT.

81
New cards

What is the risk of reversing anticoagulation?

It can cause thrombosis.

82
New cards

What is the half-life of Dabigatran?

12 to 14 hours.

83
New cards

How long does it take for 5 half-lives of Dabigatran to elapse?

Day 2.5 to 3.

84
New cards

What percentage of Dabigatran is cleared by the kidney?

80 to 85%.

85
New cards

What is the reversal agent for Dabigatran?

Idarucizumab (Praxbind).

86
New cards

What is the half-life of Apixaban?

Approximately 12 hours (range, 8 to 15).

87
New cards

How long does it take for 5 half-lives of Apixaban to elapse?

Day 1.5 to 3.

88
New cards

What percentage of Apixaban is cleared by the kidney?

27%.

89
New cards

What is the half-life of Edoxaban?

10 to 14 hours.

90
New cards

What is the half-life of Rivaroxaban?

11 to 13 hours.

91
New cards

What is the reversal agent for Rivaroxaban?

4-factor prothrombin complex concentrate (4F-PCC; Kcentra).

92
New cards

What is the dosing for vitamin K in major bleeding with Warfarin?

10 mg IV with Kcentra.

93
New cards

What is the mechanism of action of vitamin K?

Promotes liver synthesis of factors II, VII, IX, and X.

94
New cards

What is the reversal agent for Heparin?

Protamine.

95
New cards

What is the dosing for Protamine in Heparin reversal?

1 mg IV protamine per 100 units of heparin received in the last 2-3 hours.

96
New cards

What is the preferred anticoagulant for a patient with CrCl 28?

Apixaban.

97
New cards

What is the initial dose of Apixaban for a patient with CrCl 28?

10 mg BID for 7 days, then 5 mg BID.

98
New cards

What interaction does fluconazole have with Apixaban?

Fluconazole is a strong CYP3A4 and CYP2C9 inhibitor, increasing Apixaban levels.

99
New cards

What is the management for a stable PE?

Start anticoagulation; thrombolytics are not indicated.

100
New cards

What is the indication for an IVC filter?

Only when anticoagulation is absolutely contraindicated.