Pharm II Midterm

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Last updated 11:13 PM on 6/22/26
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267 Terms

1
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GOLD Grades (FEV1 % Predicted) for COPD

1: ≥ 80

2: 50-79

3: 30-49

4: < 30

2
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≥ 2 moderate exacerbations or ≥ 1 leading to hospitalization initial treatment for COPD

LABA + LAMA

3
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what does eosinophil level need to be equal or greater than to consider adding ICS to LABA + LAMA initial treatment for COPD

300

4
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initial treatment for 0 or 1 moderate exacerbations (no hospitalizations) and mMRC is 0-1, CAT <10 for COPD

bronchodilator

5
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initial treatment for 0 or 1 moderate exacerbations (no hospitalizations) and mMRC is ≥ 2, CAT ≥ 10 for COPD

LABA + LAMA

6
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which LABA/LAMA has greater efficacy for COPD

indacaterol/glycopyrrolate

7
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LOOK AT FOLLOW UP PHARM TREATMENT FOR COPD

***

8
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regular treatment with ICS for stable COPD increases the risk of __

pneumonia

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blood eosinophil count < __ % increases risk of pneumonia, no matter if using ICS or not for COPD

2

10
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long term ___ therapy reduces exacerbations over one year (esp. smokers) in COPD

azithromycin

11
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what is the only biologic therapy for COPD

dupilumab

12
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what to consider for treating dyspnea in COPD pts with severe disease

opioids

13
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what is an add on therapy for COPD that is an inhaled PDE 3 & 4 inhibitor

Ensifentrine (Ohtuvayre)

14
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SE of Ensifentrine (Ohtuvayre)

back pain, HTN, UTI, diarrhea, CYP2C9 inhibitor

15
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which COPD medication is a PDE-4 inhibitor

Roflumilast (Daliresp)

16
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SE of Roflumilast (Daliresp)

weight loss, suicidal ideations, diarrhea, weight loss, nausea, HA, back pain

17
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when is Roflumilast (Daliresp) contraindicated

moderate to severe liver impairment and in nursing mothers

18
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what is used in COPD for those with antitrypsin deficiency and established emphysema

ɑ1 - Antitrypsin Augmentation Therapy

19
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which drug class for COPD can be used long term that reduces exacerbations and improves survival

beta blockers

20
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acute management of mild COPD exacerbation

SA bronchodilator (Albuterol or ipratropium)

21
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acute management of moderate COPD exacerbation

SA bronchodilators + antibiotics and/or oral corticosteroids

22
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order of CF treatment

Albuterol

Hypertonic saline

Dornase alfa

Aerosolized antibiotic

23
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which 3 drugs to use concurrently in CF for airway clearance and mucous thinning

Dornase Alfa (Pulmozyme)

Hypertonic Saline (7% NaCl)

Mannitol (Bronchitol)

24
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which 2 antibiotics can be used for chronic suppressive therapy in CF

azithromycin or tobramycin (TOBI)

25
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what to use for acute exacerbations of CF that targets infection control

IV antibiotics

26
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what can you use PRN for CF inflammation reduction

ibuprofen or corticosteroids

27
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CFTR modulator for G551D and other gating mutations

Ivacaftor (Kalydeco)

28
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CFTR modulator for F508del homozygous mutations

Lymacaftor/Ivacaftor (Orkambi)

29
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CFTR modulator for F508del (homozygous or heterozygous) and other mutations

Elexacaftor/Tezacaftor/Ivacaftor (Trikafta)

30
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first line treatment for acute TB infection

Rifampin, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol + B6

31
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Rifampin SE

orange/brown body fluids, yellow skin/eyes, CYP450 inducer

32
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Isoniazid SE

decreased appetite, dark urine, yellow skin/eyes, pale stools, serotonin syndrome, vision changes rare (red/blue), peripheral neuropathy, hepatotoxicity, seizures

33
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Pyrazinamide SE

decreased appetite, increased uric acid (joint/muscle pain) → gout, photosensitivity, hepatotoxicity

34
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Ethambutol SE

vision changes (optic neuritis), red/green color blindness, vision blurring

35
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which medications have a risk of SJS/TENS

lamotrigine, carbamazepine, ethosuximide

36
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second line TB medication Amikacin - aminoglycoside SE

ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity

37
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which drugs in RIPE can cause hepatotoxoicity

Rifampin, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide

3 multiple choice options

38
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preferred treatment for latent TB and length of time

Isonazid + Rifampin: 3 months

3 multiple choice options

39
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what to always give with Isonazid to reduce SE

B6 (Pyridoxine)

40
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after giving RIPE + B6 for 2 months in drug susceptible TB, give __ for __ months

Isonaizid, Rifampin, B6 for 4 months

41
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which TB med needs B6 to limit SE

isoniazid

42
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1st line treatment for MDR-TB

Bedaquiline, Pretomanid, Linezolid, Moxifloxacin for 6 months

43
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NYHA PAH class with no symptoms

I

44
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NYHA PAH class with no symptoms at rest, but symptoms with ordinary activity

II

45
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NYHA PAH class with no symptoms at rest, but limitation of activity

III

46
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NYHA PAH class with dyspnea/fatigue at rest, cannot perform activity without symptoms

IV

47
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1st line treatment drug class in PAH for patients who test (+) in vasoreactivity test

calcium channel blockers

48
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calcium channel blocker drugs

Nifedipine, Diltiazem, Amlodipine

49
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calcium channel blocker SE

systemic hypotension, LE peripheral edema

50
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which calcium channel blocker has significant negative chronotropic and inotropic effects, avoid with ↓HR

diltiazem

51
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1st line therapy for moderate PAH (functional class II-III)

PDE-5 inhibitors

52
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PDE-5 inhibitor drug examples

Sildenafil, Tadalafil, Vardenafil, Riociguat

53
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PDE-5 inhibitor MOA

increases cGMP and cAMP by preventing their breakdown → dilation/relaxation

54
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PDE-5 inhibitor SE

HA, dizziness, flushing, vasodilation, vision and hearing lost, priapism

55
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which SE to know for Riociguat

syncope

56
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what to avoid in those taking PDE-5 inhibitors and why

avoid nitrates and alpha adrenergic drugs due to hypotension

57
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Prostaglandin I2 Analogs (PGI2) MOA

increases CAMP levels, vasodilation, antiaggregant of platelets, antiproliferative action on the cells

58
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Prostaglandin I2 Analogs (PGI2) drugs

Iloprost, Epoprostenol, Treprostinil

59
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Iloprost (inhaled) has which SE

dizziness, HA, flushing, syncope

60
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which PGI2 is 1st line therapy for severe PAH (functional class IV)

Epoprostinol (IV)

61
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Epoprostinol (IV) SE

HA, dizziness, flushing, nosebleed, increased risk for bleeding

62
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which PGI2 can cause rebound PAH and death

Epoprostinol (IV)

63
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1st line PGI2 for PH due to ILD

Treprostinil (IV)

64
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Endothelin Receptor Antagonists (ERA) MOA

blocks effects of endothelian-1, a potent vasoconstrictor and promoter of smooth muscle proliferation, by inhibiting its action at ETA and/or ETB receptors

65
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nonselective Endothelin Receptor Antagonists (ERA) drugs

Bosentan, Macitentan

66
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selective Endothelin Receptor Antagonists (ERA) drugs

Abrisentan and Sitazisentan

67
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Endothelin Receptor Antagonists (ERA) SE

hepatotoxicity

68
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what drug should be given to all patients with PAH

warfarin

69
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class of medications for HTN that target cardiac output

BB, CCB, diuretics

70
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using BB in diabetics can mask symptoms of

hypoglycemia

71
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ACE-i MOA

stop enzyme that converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II (stops constriction of blood vessels)

72
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ACE-i medications end in ___

-pril

73
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2 main SE of ACE-i

angioedema and cough

74
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DO NOT combine __ with __ (2 HTN drug classes)

ACE-i, ARB

75
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ARB MOA

block action of angiotensin, thus preventing constriction of blood vessels

76
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ARB medications end in ___

-sartan

77
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ARB SE

hyperkalemia, orthostatic hypotension

78
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when to take ARBs due to SE of orthostatic hypotension

night

79
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ARNi drug combo

Sacubitril/Valsartan (Entresto)

80
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Sacubitril/Valsartan (Entresto) SE

AKI, angioedema, hyperkalemia, hypotension

81
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B1 selective BB drugs

Bisoprolol, Atenolol, Nebivolol, Metoprolol, Esmolol

82
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Non selective BB drugs

Carvedilol, Labetalol, Propranolol, Timolol (optic), Sotalol

83
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SE of BB

sexual dysfunction, fatigue, depression

84
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A1 selective blocker drugs

Prazosin, Terazosin, Doxazosin

85
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which drug class is centrally acting, is last line, and needs to be tapered off for HTN

Alpha-2 Adrenergic Agonist

86
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Alpha-2 Adrenergic Agonist drug examples

Clonidine, Guanfacine, Methyldopa

87
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Alpha-2 Adrenergic Agonist MOA

binds to alpha-2 adrenergic receptors in the brain and reduces sympathetic outflow

88
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hypertensive urgency treatment

clonidine

89
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Clonidine and Guanfacine: used for ____ HTN

resistant

90
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A2 Adrenergic Agonist SE

sodium and fluid retention on chronic use, orthostatic hypotension, dizziness, anticholinergic effects

91
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if A2 Adrenergic Agonist (ex. clonidine) are d/c abruptly, risk for ___

rebound HTN

92
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CCB MOA

dilate arteries to decrease peripheral vascular resistance, reduce workload of the heart, thus the blood pressure

93
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when are CCB CI

heart failure, pts with pitting edema

94
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LABA monotherapy BBW

death

95
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ACEi/ARB BBW

avoid in pregnancy

96
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which RIPE TB medication do you need to avoid tyramine rich fods

isoniazid

97
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1st line HTN drug class for African Americans

CCB

98
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Dihydropyridines end in

-pine

99
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do dihydropyridines work at the heart or peripherally

peripherally

100
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Non-Dihydropyridines drug examples

Phenylalkylamine - Verapamil (Isoptin, Calan, Verelan), Benzothiazepine - Diltiazem (Cardizem, Tiazac)