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define cervical incompetence/cervical insufficiency
mechanical defect in cervix which causes premature cervical ripening
previous cervical trauma such as a D&C or cauterization or congential structural defects of the uterus/cervix can cause
cervical incompetency
define cervical cerclage/cervical stitch
sutures placed to reinforce the cervix
when are cervical stitches removed
near term
when are cervical stitches given prophylatically (if there is a hx of cervical incompetency)
12 and 16 weeks
what three things should the nurse monitor post op from cervical cerclage
uterine activity, leaking fluid, or infection
define an ectopic pregnancy
implantation of fertilized egg somewhere other than the uterus
an ectopic tubal pregnancy is a
medical emergency
when do S/S of an ectopic pregnancy typically start
~ 6-8 weeks
what is a significant cause of maternal death when regarding ectopic pregnancy
hemorrhage
what is the #1 risk factor for an ectopic pregnancy
tubular obstruction
hx of STIs, pelvic inflammatory disease, and endometriosis are common causes of
ectopic pregnancy
use of a contraceptive IUD and assisted reproduction are some causes of
ectopic pregnancy
what is a key sign someone may have an ectopic pregnancy that the nurse should look for
lower quadrant tenderness with a palpable mass
what are the 3 S/S of ectopic pregnancy rupture
adnexal pain, referred should pain, vaginal bleeding
define adnexal pain
pain in ovaries or fallopian tubes
when you hear referred shoulder pain think
internal bleeding
what are the nursing interventions for someone who has an ectopic pregnancy
start large bore IV, notify HCP, prep patient for abd US
what are 2 things to prepare the patient for concerning the medical management of an ectopic pregnancy
transvaginal US, possible laprascopy
if the patient is stable with an unruptured ectopic pregnancy the nurse can expect an order for what medication
methotrexate
if the patient has a ruptured ectopic pregnancy the nurse can expect to do what 3 things
explain procedures and get signed consents, get type and cross, observe for shock
if a patient comes in with a ruptured ectopic pregnancy and there is already a type and cross done the nurse can anticipate an order for
two units of PRBCs
methotrexate is what kind of agent
chemotherapeutic
when handling methotrexate the nurse should use what PPE
double gloves
when drawing up methotrexate in a syringe it is very important not to
expell air from the syringe
what patient teaching is important for a patient being given methotrexate (specifically for bathroom)
urine is considered toxic for 72 hours > flush twice with lid closed
what are some AE of methotrexate
N/V, transient abd pain
what 4 things should be avoided while on methotrexate
alcohol, folic acid, NSAIDs, and sunlight
define gestational trophoblastic disease/molar pregnancy
the fertilized egg develops into abnormal placental tissue instead of a normal baby
with gestational trophoblastic disease/molar pregnancy is there an embryo present
rarely
what is gestational trophoblastic disease/molar pregnancy characterized by
placenta becomes cluster of fluid filled grape like cysts
gestational trophoblastic disease/molar pregnancy can predispose patient to what kind of CA
choriocarcinoma
what hormone level will be extremely high in a molar pregnancy
hCG
high levels of hCG in a molar pregnancy lead to what common S/S
hyperemesis
besides hyperemesis what is a common sign that someone may be experiencing molar pregnancy
uterus larger than expected for gestational age
when someone is experiencing a molar pregnancy they have vaginal bleeding in the 1st trimester which varies from
brown discharge to profuse hemorrhage
on an US a molar pregnancy displays what kind of pattern
snowstorm
what is another important sign of molar pregnancy besides hyperemesis or uterus size
development of preeclampsia before 24 weeks
a malignant change in a molar pregnancy to choriocarcinoma can lead to metastasis to what 4 organs
lungs, liver, vagina, and brain
what is critical to avoid as a nurse when you have a patient who has gestational trophoblastic disease/molar pregnancy
uterine stimulation
what 5 orders should the nurse anticipate for someone who has an evacuation of trophoblastic tissue (D&C) scheduled
CBC, type and screen, coag status, CXR, CT or MRI (metastasis)
what procedure is utilized to evacuate trophoblastic tissue
D&C
how long after a gestational trophoblastic disease/molar pregnancy should a pregnancy be prevented
one year
how often will hCG levels be checked following a molar pregnancy
q2mo for 6 mo
if hCG levels rise after treatment for molar pregnancy this indicates _________; and is treated with _________
malignancy; methotrexate
when preparing a patient who had a molar pregnancy for d/c, what are 3 important S/S to educate them on and tell them to report immediately
bright red vaginal bleeding, temperature >100.4, foul smelling vaginal d/c
define placenta previa
implantation of the placenta lower in the uterus
define partial placental previa
when the placenta partially covers the cervical os
define total/complete placental previa
placenta completely covers cervical os
the bleeding associated with placenta previa is characterized as
painless and bright red
with placenta previa the uterus is usually
soft, relaxed, non-tender
a
a
is vaginal bleeding with placenta previa dangerous
rarely
what is ALWAYS contraindicated with placenta previa
vaginal exam
why are vaginal exams contraindicated with placenta previa
can cause placental separation or tear placenta
what is utilized to determine placental placement
US
management of placenta previa is based on
condition of mother and fetus
if the mother is stable and there is no fetal compromise the main priority is (preterm labor)
delaying birth
what medications will be given to a mom with placenta previa and why
corticosteroids > mature fetal lungs
if managing placenta previa at home they are under strict orders for
bed rest
if the mother or fetus is not stable where will mom be and what will be monitored
admitted to hospital > monitor mom/fetus for compromise
if mother or fetus is not stable with placenta previa and one becomes compromised it usually results in
emergency c-section
define placental abruption
placenta separates from uterine wall early
when does placental abruption typically occur
3rd trimester or labor
placental abruption is considered an
obstetric emergency
HTN disorders, high gravidity, abd trauma, PROM and a short umbilical cord are associated with
placental abruption
how does cocaine abuse factor into placental abruption
vasoconstriction to endometrial arteries
bleeding, uterine tenderness, localized pain are S/S of
placental abruption
what is a key S/S of placental abruption
rigid, board like abd
FHR abnormalities, S/S of shock, IUPC having increased resting tone are S/S of
placental abruption
what social problems should a nurse assess for a patient with a placental abruption
IPV and cocaine use
strict bed rest, monitor FHR, side lying position, quantify blood loss, monitor for S/S of DIC are nursing interventions for what pregnancy condition
placental abruption
if there is only a mild placental abruption with a fetus <34 weeks with no S/S of distress the HCP will order conservative management with what 4 things
bed rest, possible tocolytics, corticosteroids, Rhogam prn
what is disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
widespread clotting > depletion of clotting factors > uncontrolled bleeding
DIC is ______-_________
life threatening
is there a cure for DIC
no
what are the 5 main causes of DIC
placental abruption, incomplete/missed abortion, endoethelial damage, maternal sepsis, amniotic fluid embolism
what are 2 things that can cause endothelial damage
severe preeclampsia and HELLP syndrome
increased miscarriage, preterm labor, preeclampsia, infection, postpartum hemorrhage and IUGR is associated with what pregnancy condition
anemia
what is the total iron requirement for a single fetus pregnancy
1000mg/day
what are some primary sources of iron during pregnancy (natural)
meat, fish, chicken, liver, leafy green vegetables
ferrous sulfate iron supplements should be taken on a(n) ________ stomach and with ______ to increase absorption
empty; orange juice
pallor, fatigue, lethargy, and HAs are S/S of
anemia
what are key S/S of iron deficiency anemia
inflammation of the lips and tongue
what is another name for DIC
consumptive coagulopathy