hema ratio

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Last updated 3:14 PM on 4/29/26
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136 Terms

1
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In the red blood cell, the hexose monophosphate shunt:

Helps prevent oxidation of hemoglobin

2
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The major site for removal of normal aged erythrocytes is:

Spleen

3
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Compared to Rubricyte, a Metarubricyte looks different

because of its:

Pyknotic nucleus

4
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What is the distribution of normal hemoglobin in adults?

>95% HbA, <3.5% HbA2, 1% to 2% HbF

5
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This renal hormone stimulates Erythropoiesis in the bone

marrow:

EPO

6
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These pairs of chains make up the majority of hemoglobin in

normal adults:

2-Alpha and 2 Beta

7
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A shift to the right in the ODC (O2 dissociation curve) occurs when there is a/an

Increase in CO2

8
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Bite cells are associated with:

G6PD deficiency

9
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Relative polycythemia may be found:

In dehydration

10
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Anemia due to failure of the kidneys to produceerythropoietin (EPO) and decreased bone marrow response to EPO

Anemia of chronic renal insufficiency

11
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Patients with beta thalassemia major may show increased amounts of

Hb F

12
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Which of the following is a pure red cell aplasia?

Diamond Black fan anemia

13
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Haptoglobin may become depleted in:

Acute hemolytic anemia

14
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A patient has a hemoglobin level of 8.0 g/dl. According to the rule of three, within what range would the hematocrit be expected?

21% - 27%

15
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Which of the following is a cause of neutrophilia?

Acute bacterial infection

16
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This form of hemoglobin has iron in the ferric state:

Methemoglobin

17
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Identify the disorder: Presence of an IgG Biphasic Donath Landsteiner antibody with a P-specificity fixes complement to RBC in the cold temperature and lysis RBC when warmed

PCH (Paroxysmal Cold Hemoglobinuria)

18
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Type of Red Cell shape variation associated with Abetalipoproteinemia:

Acanthocytes

19
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Most common anticoagulant used in Hematology, especially

in blood film preparation:

EDTA

20
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Which is the Second storage form of Iron that is NOT water soluble and is LESS readily available for utilization?

Hemosiderin

21
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According to WHO, it is the most common anemia and is

estimated to affect 2 billion people worldwide:

Iron Deficiency Anemia (IDA)

22
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Which Dietary component(s) is/are needed for DNA synthesis, and thus greatly influence the red blood cell production?

Folic acid, cyanocobalamin, Vitamin B12

23
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Which of the following are the most characteristics of the Red Cell Indices associated with megaloblastic anemia?

MCV 125fL MCH 36pg MCHC 34%

24
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The Prussian blue staining of PBS identifies:

Siderotic granules, Pappenheimer bodies

25
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Which Red Cell inclusion may be seen in the PBS of a patient with Rh Null disease:

Stomatocytes

26
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The morphological classification of anemias is based on which of the following:

RBC indices

27
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The old principal confirmatory test in the diagnosis of Hereditary Spherocytosis is:

OF Test

28
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Group of rare inherited disorders that involve a block in porphyrin synthesis due to defect in the enzymes or enzyme deficiency in the pathway of heme synthesis:

Porphyrias

29
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What is the major iron transport protein in blood

Transferrin

30
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Hb Bart is composed of:

4 gamma chains

31
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Both deoxyhemoglobin S and deoxyhemoglobin C have a substitution in the same B-chain position. This substitution causes:

Decreased hemoglobin solubility

32
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Which of the following is most characteristic of the peripheral blood picture in pure red cell aplasia?

Anemia

33
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Hemolytic anemias caused by intrinsic erythrocyte

abnormalities include

Hereditary spherocytosis

34
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What disorder is associated with erythrocytes that are

thermally unstable and fragment when heated at 45 to

46°C?

Hereditary pyropoikilocytosis

35
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Microhematocrit results should be read within how many minutes of centrifugation?

10

36
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Which of the following conditions is associated with the presence of hypersegmented neutrophils in the peripheral blood smear?

Vitamin B12 and folic acid deficiency

37
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A schistocyte with one or more hornlike projections has

been identified as a:

Helmet cells

38
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Hemoglobin migration pattern on cellulose acetate from point of application to anode is:

C and A2 < S < F < A

39
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Acute monocytic leukemia is otherwise known as?

Schillings’s leukemia

40
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Which of the following parameters is used to assess the RBC populations variation in size?

MCV

41
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Alkaline denaturation and acid elution test detects the presence of what hemoglobin type?

F

42
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The cell considered to be distinctive of Hodgkin’s disease:

Reed-Sternberg cells

43
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A leukoerythroblastic reaction is characterized by thempresence of

_ in the peripheral blood:

Immature leukocytes and nucleated erythrocytes

44
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Counting method of WBCs counted in consecutive fields as

the blood film is moved from side to side

Crenellation

45
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Which of these physiologic errors in manual hemoglobin measurement can be corrected by adding of patient’s plasma to cyanmethemoglobin reagent and use this as a patient blank?

Lipemia

46
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Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome is characterized by all of the

following

Hemorrhage, Thrombocytopenia, Hemoglobinuria

47
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Also known as Rosenthal syndrome:

Hemophilia C = XI

48
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In differentiating maturation stages of the megakaryocytic

cells, emphasis should be placed on the __

Cytoplasmic appearance

49
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The etiological agents of leukemias can include

Ionizing radiation, Chemical exposure to benzene, Certain infectious agents

50
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Thrombocytopenia in multiple blood transfusion is due to:

Dilution of the platelet count

51
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A platelet determination was performed on an automated instrument and a very low value was obtained. The platelets appeared adequate when esteemed from the stained blood film. The best explanation for this discrepancy is:

Red cell fragments are present in the blood

52
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Change in oxygen -hemoglobin dissociation curve in response to hypoxia

Haldane effect

53
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In intravascular hemolysis, excess heme will bind to hemopexin to be delivered to tissue macrophages. In cases of depleted hemopexin, which of the following complexes is formed?

Methemalbumin

54
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In differentiating Hemophilia A from von Willebrand's

disease, what result would be expected from both diseases in BT?

vWD is abnormal, hemophilia A is normal

55
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Faggot cells are most commonly seen in?

Acute promyelocytic leukemia (AML M3)

56
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It is necessary for maintaining vascular integrity and is responsible for the hydroxylation of lysine and proline

Ascorbate (vit. C)

57
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A bleeding condition that is due to deficiency of ascorbic acid:

Scurvy

58
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Describe the platelet characteristics in the Wiskott Aldrich syndrome (tiny platelets)

Small, lacks dense granules, and structurally

abnormal

59
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What is the most common needle size for adult venipuncture

21-gauge, 1 inch

60
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Allowing the tubes to stand longer than several minutes will

lead to ____ hematocrit findings

Increased

61
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What would be the effect of hemolyzed specimen in PT measurements

Falsely shortened

62
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What are the changes if hemostasis specimen is stored at

refrigerator?’

Premature activation of factor VII and XI,

Cryoprecipitation of large vWF multimers, and destruction of factor VIII

63
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A prolonged tourniquet application will lead to coagulation test results

Falsely shortened

64
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Effect of inflammatory conditions in vWF activity measurement:

Increased

65
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Factors IX, X, VII, II requires vitamin K, which is essential for

the _____ of amino terminal glutamic acids.

Gamma carboxylation

66
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It is caused by leakage of a small amount of blood in themtissue around the puncture site. The most common vascularmcomplication in venipuncture

Hematoma

67
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Stage/s of granulocytes that is/are normally observed in the peripheral blood of a healthy individual

Segmented WBC, Band cells

68
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Which of the following is true regarding to extravascular or macrophage mediated hemolysis?

Total serum bilirubin is increased

69
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Increased APTT and PT would indicate a deficiency of:

Factor 1

70
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Which of the following factor deficiency is associated with either NO bleeding or only minor bleeding tendency even after trauma or surgery?

Factor XII

71
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Which coagulation factor is present in highest concentration

in plasma?

Factor I

72
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What is the platelet estimate factor?

X 20,000

73
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To evaluate normal platelet numbers in an appropriate areamof blood smear, approximately how many platelets, should bemobserved per oil immersion field?

8-20

74
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The standard dilution factor used in microscopy in performing manual platelet count:

1:100

75
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What is the platelet aggregation test for Glanzmann’s Thrombasthenia?

Normal aggregation in ristocetin, ADP, Epinephrine and collagen

76
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True about Immune thrombocytopenic purpura:

Due to platelet antibodies

77
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The type of nuclear reproduction seen in megakaryocyte is:

Endomitosis

78
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HMWK is also known as:

Fitzgerald

79
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All of the following tests are affected by heparin therapy

Thrombin time, WBCLT, APTT

80
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An abnormal thrombin time is associated with

Fibrinogen deficiency

81
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The Duckert’s test is for what factor deficiency?

Factor XIII

82
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The D-dimer test is a specific test for:

Plasmin degradation of fibrin (STABILIZED)

83
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Which are inhibitor of coagulation?

Protein C, Anti-thrombin III/C, Heparin cofactor II

84
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What is the main role of protein S in hemostasis?

Cofactor with protein C

85
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Which of the following is the primary inhibitor of the fibrinolytic system?

Alpha 2 antiplasmin

86
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The reagent in APTT contains which of the following substances?

Phospholipids, Activators, Calcium chloride

87
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Antidote for overdose of Coumadin:

Vitamin K (+ FFP)

88
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Reversal of heparin overdose can be achieved by administration of:

Protamine sulfate

89
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Which is NOT a bleeding time method?

Dale and Laidlaw’s

90
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In the Ivy method the bleeding time, the blood pressure cuff is inflated to:

40mmHg

91
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What is the ratio of anticoagulant to blood for coagulation studies?

1:9

92
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Which of the following anticoagulant of choice for most coagulation studies?

Citrate

93
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Contact group factors:

Factor XI, XII, HMWK, PK

94
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Coagulation factors affected by coumarin drugs:

Factor X, IX, II, VII

95
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The prothrombin group of coagulation factor:

Vitamin K dependent

96
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The fibrinogen group of coagulation:

Not vitamin K dependent

97
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Which of the following factors binds to platelets via the gpIIb/IIIa receptor?

Fibrinogen

98
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Bernard- Soulier syndrome is associated with:

Known as “Giant platelet Syndrome”, Thrombocytopenia and giant platelets

99
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In DIC and ITP:

There is increased destruction of platelets

100
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Bleeding disorders associated with vascular abnormality

Hemorrhagic telangiectasia, Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, Scurvy, Senile purpura