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what is the function of the supplemental motor area
store the thought of motion
what is the pathway through the brain for motion
input > area 6 (basal ganglia, thalamus, cerebellum) > area 4 (brainstem) > spinal cord > movement
what part of the brain is responsible for the refinement of movement
basal ganglia
what makes up the basal ganglia
substantia nigra, putamen, globus pallidus
what is the overall function of the basal ganglia
regulate start, amplitude, and speed of movement
what is involuntary oscillating contractions of opposite muscles around a joint
tremor
what is reduced range and force of movement with slow initiation
bradykinesia
what is irregular writhing
chorea
what are tiwsting and turning movements
athetosis
what are flinging motions
ballismus
what are simultaneous contractions of agonist and antagonist muscles
dystonia
what is bizarre wriggling and writhing
dyskinesia
what age range is parkinsons most common in
>65
which gender is parkinsons most common in
men
what are the 3 pathologic processes for parkinson's
oxidative stress, apoptosis, mitochondrial disorder
what are risk factors for parkinson's
rural living, TBI, age >60
what is drug induced parkinsonism
dopamine blocking agents cause reversible parkinsonian tremors
what are the common genetic mutations that can cause parkinsons
PARK2, LRRK2, GBA
what is the course of pathophysiology that leads to parkinson's
destruction of dopaminergic neurons in substantia nigra > depletion of dopamine stores > imbalance of ACh and dopamine NT > impairment of control of complex body movements
what role does dopamine play in movement
inhibitory
what role does ACh play in movement
excitatory
what can be found in histology of the brain post-mortem
lewy bodies
what is the essential cardinal feature for parkinson's diagnosis
bradykinesia
what other criteria lead to a parkinson's diagnosis
asymmetric resting tremor or rigidity
what are other features seen in parkinson's disease
micrographia, diminished arm swing, shuffling gait, fall risk
what are the 4 absolute exclusion criteria
confirmed cerebellar, visual, or cortical abnormalities; medication induced; no response to high-dose levodopa; features only in lower limbs >3 years
what are red flags at the time of diagnosis
bilateral presentation, respiratory dysfunction
what are red flags within 3-5 years of diagnosis
recurrent falls w/i 3 years; wheelchair use w/i 5 years; autonomic failure w/i 5 years
what are red flags w/i 5 years
absence of common non-motor features after 5 years; absence of progression in 5 years w/o treatment; contractures of hands/feet w/i 5 years
when do you consider alternative diagnosis
symmetrical presentation, no response to DA challenge, no bradykinesia, history of TBI, concurrent dementia
what is a DaT scan
visualization of dopamine transport to support diagnosis
ioflupane binds to DA transporter, shown in PET scan
what are common things that lead to falls in parkinson's
postural instability, orthostatic hypotension, levodopa induced dyskinesia
what are symptoms of autonomic dysfunction in parkinson's
constipation, urinary retention, sexual problems, pain, dysphagia
what are neuropsychiatric symptoms in parkinson's
cognitive impairment, hallucinations, depression, sleep disorders
what is a 1 on hoehn/yahr staging
asymmetrical symptoms
what is a 2 on hoehn/yahr staging
bilateral symptoms, no trouble ambulating
what is a 3 on hoehn/yahr staging
bilateral symptoms, some trouble ambulating
what is a 4 on hoehn/yahr staging
bilateral symptoms, moderate trouble ambulating
what is a 5 on hoehn/yahr staging
bilateral symptoms, inability to walk
what is a hallmark symptom of early parkinson's
olfactory impairment
what are the 4 pain types of dementia
dementia, lewy body, vascular, frontotemporal
what is alzheimers
progressive, fatal neurogenerative disorder
what does alzheimers affect
cognition, behavior, functional status
what are reversible causes of dementia
normal pressure hydrocephalus, hypothyroidism, B12 deficiency, delirium, depression, B1 deficiency
what are the most common med associated with cognitive impairment
anticholinergics, benzos, sedative hypnotics, opioids, antipsychotics
what are the non-modifiable risk factors for alzheimers
age, female gender
what are the modifiable risk factors for alzheimers
hearing loss, physical inactivity, diabetes, hypertension, obesity, depression, cigarette smoking, low education attainment, excessive alcohol use
what influences a persons likelihood of getting AD
environmental/lifestyle factors/genetics/medical comorbidities
what is the leading theory for the reason behind AD
proteinopathies: aggregation and accumulation of misfolded proteins
what are the two types of lesions
amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles
what type of pathways are destroyed in AD
cholinergic
which type of lesion is outside the neuron
amyloid plaques
what type of lesion in inside the neuron
neurofibrillary tangles
what are APP required for
helps neuro grow and repair
what recycles APP
alpha and gamma secretase
in AD, what recycles APP
beta and gamma secretase
what is the consequence of production of beta amyloid
it is insoluble and sticky and forms plaques
what composes neurofibrillary tangles
abnormally hyperphosphorylated tau proteins
what is the normal function of tau proteins
stabilize microtubules in the neurons
what is the consequence of having phosphorylated tau proteins
microtubules collapse and tau proteins clump together to create tangles
what biomarker is first seen in AD
amyloid PET
what are the second and third biomarkers seen
MTL tau, then neocortical tau
what is the secondary cause of AD
nueroinflammation
what are the physical changes that happen to the brain in AD
brain atrophy, gyri narrow, sulci widen, ventricles become larger
which of the following is true regarding the pathophysiology of AD
a. AD can be caused by amyloid plaques
b. AD can be caused by neurofibrillary tangles
c. AD can be caused by inflammatory brain processes
d. the cause of AD is not completely understood
e. all of the above
e. all of the above
what neurotransmitter is depleted in alzheimers disease
a. dopamine
b. ACh
c. serotonin
d. NE
b. ACh
why is the advantage of using blood biomarkers of plaque/tangle PET scans
can be used in early stages, less invasive, decreased cost
what are the core 1 biomarkers
A and T1
what is the core 2 biomarkers
T2
when do core 1 biomarkers become abnormal
around the same time as amyloid PET
what is core 1 used for
can identify presence of AD in symptomatic and asymptomatic patients
when does core 2 become abnormal
close to the onset of symptoms
what are the clinical presentations of AD
memory loss, aphasia, disorientation, impaired executive function, depression, psychotic symptoms, inability to perform ADLs
what is the loss of ability to understand or express speech
aphasia
what is apraxia
loss of ability to execute skilled movement despite having the physical ability to do so
what is agnosia
inability to recognize and identify objects or persons using one or more senses
what is the difference between ADLs and IADLs
ADLs: toileting, feeding, bathing
IADLs: paying bills, remembering appointments
what are the 6 stages of AD
1. biomarker evidence, no symptoms
2. transitional decline
3. objective cognitive impairment
4. mild functional impairment
5. moderate functional impairment
6. severe functional impairment
how does stage 1 AD present
normal performance on cognitive tests, no cognitive decline
biomarkers are positive
how does stage 2 AD present
decline from previous cognition but still within expected range on cognitive tests
fully independent
how does stage 3 AD present
performance is abnormal on cognitive tests, decline from baseline, can perform ADLs independently but may have impact on complex activities
how does stage 4 AD present
progressive cognitive and mild impairment in IADLs, independence with ADLs
how does stage 5 AD present
progressive cognitive and mild function impairment. requires assistance for basic ADLs
how does stage 6 AD present
complete dependence on others for basic ADLs
what is the main test of cognition for AD
MMSE, mini mental state exam
what is the MMSE used for
score determines appropriateness for drug therapy and staging of illness
what is the MMSE range for mild AD
18-26
what is the MMSE range for moderate AD
10-17
what is the MMSE range for severe AD
0-9
what are behavioral Sx associated with dementia
delusions, hallucinations, depression, sundowning
what are the DSM-5 criteria for a major depressive episode
-at least 1 of these 2: depressed mood or loss of pleasure
-at least 4 of these: weigh change, sleep disturbance, agitation/retardation, fatigue, guilt, decreased concentration, or suicidal ideation
-symptoms present nearly every day for at least 2 weeks
what is required for diagnosis of MDD
symptoms must be causing clinically significant distress or impairment in areas of functioning that is not attributable to other conditions
what are medical conditions associated with depressive symptoms
anemia, heart failure, HIV, hypothyroidism, cancer, MS, parkinson's, seizure disorders
what are medications that are associated with depressive symptoms
acyclovir, anti-seizure meds, ARVs, barbiturates, benzos, b-blockers, corticosteroids, accutane, hormonal products, opioids, varenicline
what are risk factors for depression
female, middle-aged, widowed/separated/divorced, low income, unemployment, disability, stressful life events, first degree relative with MDD
what is the monoamine hypothesis of depression
depression due to deficiency of NE and serotonin
causes upregulation of receptors
according to the monoamine hypothesis, when do anti-depressants take effect
when receptors downregulate toward normal
what is BDNF required for
growth and development of neurons, survival of adult neurons, maintenance of connections (essentially your brains fertilizer)
what happens to BDNF in depression
levels are lower
what occurs due to low levels of BDNF in depression
neurons undergo apoptosis which leads to loss of dendritic spines