APII Lab 1-6 Midterm Multiple Choice Questions

What is the function of the levator palpebrae superioris muscle?

opens the eye

What actions are performed by the inferior oblique eye muscle?

eye rolls, looks superiorly and laterally

What actions are performed by the superior oblique eye muscle?

eye rolls, looks inferiorly and laterally

Which two bactericidal proteins are produced by tears?

lysozyme and IgA

What action is performed when the palpebrae are opened then closed in succession?

blinking

What eye structure is a non-vascularized, transparent, fibrous covering of the middle eye's outer surface which protects the eye and acts as an initial lens for focusing light into the eye?

cornea

What eye structure is the central opening that allows differing amounts of light into the eye depending upon its size?

pupil

Which muscles control enlarging pupil size in response to lower light levels?

pupillary dilator muscles

Which muscles control decreasing pupil size in response to brighter light levels?

pupillary constrictor muscles

Which pupillary reflex is assessed when light is shined into the eye to see how the pupil responds?

direct response

Which pupillary reflex assesses how the eye not being tested responds to differing amounts of light shined into the eye being tested?

consensual response

True or False? A normal pupillary reflex direct response to light shined into the eye is pupil dilation and pupil constriction occurs when light is stopped from shining into the eye.

false

What structures comprise the fibrous layer of the eye?

sclera and cornea

Which eye layer contains the iris, choroid, and ciliary body?

vascular layer

Which eye layer is the most deep?

retinal layer

What area within the macula contains the highest concentration of cones?

fovea centralis

Name the area where the optic nerve originates.

optic disc

In addition to vitreous humor, what is vitreous body composed of?

collagen fibers and proteoglycans

Where would you find vitreous body?

posterior cavity of the eye

Where would you find aqueous humor?

anterior cavity of the eye

How do you check for pupillary accommodation?

put an object (penlight or finger) in front of the patient and slowly move it toward the patients face

Describe how an abnormal direct pupillary response appears when the light is shined into the eye.

absence or lesser constriction of pupil

Describe how to detect the consensual response of the pupils.

shine light in one eye then see if the other eye responds the same way

Describe how to detect the direct response of the pupil.

shine light into one eye and see how that pupil responds

Name the photoreceptor cells.

rods and cones

Name three types of cones.

blue, green, and red

Light information is transmitted from photoreceptors to ____________.

bipolar cells

Axons of which cells make up the optic nerve?

ganglion cells

Which photoreceptors are mainly used in low light conditions?

rods

Identify the highlighted cow eye cranial nerve in this image (external segment).

optic nerve

Identify the highlighted cow eye structure that is also described as the "white" of the eye (external segment).

sclera

Identify the highlighted cow eye structure that is transparent and allows light to enter the eye (external segment).

cornea

Identify the highlighted cow eye structure representing the colored part of the eye (anterior segment).

iris

Identify the highlighted cow eye structure that allows light into the eye passing it to the lens (anterior segment).

pupil

Identify the highlighted cow eye structure that helps anchor the lens using suspensory ligaments (posterior segment).

cilliary body

Identify the highlighted cow eye structure (posterior segment).

lens

Identify the highlighted cow eye structure that is described as a gelatinous sac that fills the posterior cavity of the eye (posterior segment).

vitreous body

Identify the highlighted cow eye structure that is the delicate neural layer (posterior segment).

retina

Identify the highlighted cow eye structure that lacks photoreceptors, therefore visual information cannot be received in this area (posterior segment).

optic disc

The hormone ADH is produced by the ________ and is released from the ________.

hypothalamus; posterior pituitary

TSH is produced by the ____________, and ACTH is produced by the ____________.

anterior pituitary/anterior pituitary

The hormone ADH affects the target organ, the ___________, while the hormone ACTH affects the target organ, the _________.

kidney; adrenal cortex

The hypothalamus regulates the release of anterior pituitary hormones by releasing certain _________ and __________ hormones.

inhibiting; releasing

When autonomic centers in the hypothalamus are stimulated by the sympathetic division of the ANS, it directly signals the ____________ to produce epinephrine and norepinephrine.

adrenal medulla

The production of T3 and T4 depends upon which two molecules?

tyrosine and iodide ions

Which two hormones produced by the adrenal medulla can also act as neurotransmitters?

E and NE

Mineralocorticoids, glucocorticoids, and androgens are produced by the ___________.

adrenal cortex

Name two hormones produced by pancreatic islets that play a critical role in blood glucose homeostasis.

insulin and glucagon

The underproduction of glucocorticoids (GCs) is the cause of _____________ and the overproduction of GCs is the cause of ______________.

Addison disease/ Cushing disease

The overproduction of GH is the cause of ___________, and the overproduction of _________ and _________ causes pheochromocytoma.

acromegaly, E and NE

Which of the following endocrine malfunction is NOT correctly paired to the condition it produces?

underproduction of insulin - diabetes insipidus

The medical term for high blood sugar levels is _______________.

hyperglycemia

When blood sugar levels are elevated, what specific sugar molecule is being referring to?

glucose

Certain medications can cause drug-induced diabetes. It is most commonly associate with a group of drugs called ______________, that function to decrease inflammation in the body.

glucocorticoids

Diabetes associated with pregnancy is called _______________ diabetes.

gestational

The type of diabetes associated with inadequate production of insulin due to an autoimmune disorder and usually develops in children and young adults is called

type I diabetes mellitus

The hypothalamic-hypophyseal portal system is a network of capillaries between the:

hypothalamus and anterior pituitary

What type of hormone do corticotrophs produce? What type of hormone do somatotrophs produce?

ACTH; GH

Chronic psychological stress has been shown to lead to hypersecretion of CRH. This will ultimately affect the function of:

the adrenal cortex

Which of these hormones is not produced by the adrenal cortex?

norepinephrine

Diuretics that block the effects of aldosterone are called aldosterone antagonists. Predict the effect of these drugs:

decreased blood pressure

Long-term administration of corticosteroids, which are synthetic cortisol derivatives, can result in symptoms consistent with cortisol hypersecretion. Which of these could be a possible symptom?

hyperglycemia

The synthesis of new glucose from non-carbohydrate precursors is called:

gluconeogenisis

A pheochromocytoma is a tumor of the adrenal medulla. It will result in the hypersecretion of:

epinephrine

The normal hematocrit of a male is 46 and the normal hematocrit of a female is 42. What factor primarily accounts for the gender difference in normal hematocrit values?

male androgens stimulate RBC production, while female estrogens do not

Plasma proteins constitute ~7% of the blood plasma volume. Which plasma protein is most abundant in the blood?

albumins

What common blood test can provide information about the level of formed elements a person has?

hematocrit

Which organ synthesizes and releases more than 90% of plasma proteins?

liver

Immunoglobulins protect the body by attacking foreign proteins and pathogens. Another name for immunoglobulin is

antibody

Plasma constitutes ~55% of the volume of blood. What molecule makes up most of the plasma volume?

water

The iron-containing molecule that is part of the hemoglobin molecule is called __________.

heme

Which formed element functions to transport oxygen from the lungs to the tissues, and carbon dioxide from tissues to the lungs?

erythrocytes

Erythrocytes do not contain a nucleus, mitochondria or ribosomes. What does this indicate to you about RBC molecular and cellular processes?

all of the following responses are correct

What type of condition is suspected if a patient has an abnormally low reticulocyte count?

diminished erythropoiesis

What type of condition would be suspected if a patient's blood test results are abnormally low for hematocrit, hemoglobin concentration, and RBC count?

anemia

Which WBC functions to promote inflammation by entering damaged tissues and releasing histamine?

basophil

Which WBC increases during parasitic infections and phagocytizes antibody-labeled materials?

eosinophil

WBCs called granulocytes have specialized secretory vesicles called granules that contain cytotoxic, antimicrobial or other molecular substances. These molecules are released by the cells in a process known as ____________ which aids in the body's non-specific immunity (=innate immunity).

degranulation

_________ are small membrane-bound cell fragments that contain enzymes and other substances important for blood clotting

platelets

All of the formed elements originate from hematopoietic stem cells called ___________ which are found in the red bone marrow of certain bones.

hemocytoblast

Myeloid stem cells will differentiate into certain formed elements based on the chemical signals that they receive. When influenced by the hormone, erythropoietin (EPO), RBCs will form in a process called ______________.

erythropoiesis

Myeloid stem cells will differentiate into certain formed elements based on the chemical signals that they receive. When they are influenced by the hormone thrombopoietin, they will differentiate into _______________ which will fragment and form thrombocytes.

megakaryocytes

What is the blood type of an individual who has A, B, and D RBC surface antigens, but does NOT have anti-A or anti-B antibodies?

AB+

What is the blood type of an individual who does NOT have A, B, and D RBC surface antigens, but does have anti-A and anti-B antibodies?

O-

When an individual receives an incompatible blood type, it can cause an acute hemolytic reaction. What is the end result of an acute hemolytic reaction?

destruction of RBC's

What type of blood can an individual with "B" blood safely receive in a blood transfusion?

B or O

What type of blood can an individual with "O" blood safely receive in a blood transfusion?

O only

Sensitization of a Rh- mother carrying her first Rh+ can be prevented if she is administered a drug called ___________.

RhoGam

What type of white blood cell is usually elevated in a patient with a bacterial infection?

neutrophils

A CBC is performed to examine the formed elements in a patient's blood. What does CBC stand for?

complete blood count

Which plasma proteins maintain the osmotic pressure of plasma?

albumins

Blood is a fluid _________________.

connective tissue

Which plasma protein is involved in the process of blood clotting?

fibrinogen

What type of white blood cell is usually elevated in patients with parasitic infections?

eosinophils

True or False? Blood is composed of plasma and formed elements.

true

Which formed element is the most numerous in blood?

red blood cells

What type of white blood cell is usually elevated in a patient with a viral infection?

lymphocytes

Red blood cell membranes have

agglutinogens that specify that person's blood type

ABO and Rh antigens

all answers are correct

Which of the following statements about blood types is correct?

a person with Type O blood has two recessive alleles and has neither the type A or Type B antigen.