Block 3 CAS — GI Pharmacology

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A comprehensive set of 52 flashcards covering key concepts in GI pharmacology.

Last updated 4:18 AM on 4/16/26
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52 Terms

1
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What is the mechanism and clinical use of PPIs?

Irreversibly block H+/K+ ATPase on parietal cells; used for GERD, PUD, H. pylori therapy, Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, NSAID ulcer prophylaxis.

2
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What are the side effects and long-term risks of PPIs?

Hypomagnesemia, B12 deficiency (long-term), increased C. diff risk, increased fracture risk, rebound acid hypersecretion.

3
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Why is the combination of omeprazole and clopidogrel dangerous?

Omeprazole inhibits CYP2C19, reducing clopidogrel activation and increasing stent thrombosis risk.

4
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What is the mechanism and uses of H2 blockers?

Competitively block H2 receptors on parietal cells to decrease HCl; used for GERD, PUD, nocturnal acid relief.

5
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Why is cimetidine considered special and potentially dangerous?

Most drug-interaction prone H2 blocker; inhibits CYP450 enzymes, increases levels of warfarin, phenytoin; may cause gynecomastia.

6
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What is the mechanism of sucralfate and its key interactions?

Binds to ulcer base forming protective barrier; requires acid to activate and reduces absorption of other drugs.

7
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What is the mechanism and contraindication of misoprostol?

PGE1 analog decreases HCl and increases mucus; contraindicated in pregnancy due to abortifacient effects.

8
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Which antacid causes diarrhea and which causes constipation?

Magnesium (Mg(OH)2) causes diarrhea; Aluminum (Al(OH)3) causes constipation.

9
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What is the mechanism and side effects of metoclopramide?

D2 antagonist + 5-HT4 agonist; used for gastroparesis and GERD. Side effects include tardive dyskinesia and hyperprolactinemia.

10
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What is the mechanism and use of ondansetron?

5-HT3 antagonist for chemotherapy-induced nausea and hyperemesis gravidarum; side effects include headache and QT prolongation.

11
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How does erythromycin function as a prokinetic agent?

Motilin receptor agonist that stimulates gastric motility; used for gastroparesis.

12
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What is the mechanism and contraindication of loperamide?

Peripheral mu-opioid agonist that decreases peristalsis; contraindicated in bloody diarrhea because it worsens conditions.

13
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What is the mechanism and use of rifaximin?

Rifamycin derivative that inhibits bacterial RNA polymerase; used for traveler's diarrhea and hepatic encephalopathy.

14
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What is the mechanism and target of lactulose?

Non-absorbable disaccharide fermented by colonic bacteria; converts NH3 to NH4+ and traps it to decrease ammonia absorption.

15
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What role does rifaximin play in hepatic encephalopathy?

Reduces ammonia-producing bacteria in gut and is used with lactulose for recurrent hepatic encephalopathy.

16
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What is the mechanism and use of mesalamine (5-ASA)?

Inhibits COX and LOX to decrease inflammation; used for mild-moderate ulcerative colitis.

17
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What makes sulfasalazine unique and dangerous?

5-ASA + sulfapyridine; may cause GI upset, hemolytic anemia, and inhibit folate absorption.

18
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What is the use of steroids in IBD and their limitations?

Used for acute flares but not for maintenance due to side effects like adrenal suppression.

19
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What is the action of azathioprine/6-mercaptopurine in IBD?

Immunosuppressive agent used for maintenance of remission; testing TPMT enzyme activity is required before use.

20
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What are the examples of anti-TNF biologics used in IBD?

Infliximab, adalimumab, certolizumab, golimumab; used for moderate-severe IBD and require screening for infections.

21
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What is the mechanism and use of ursodeoxycholic acid (UDCA)?

Hydrophilic bile acid used to improve bile flow in primary biliary cholangitis.

22
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Why are antibiotics contraindicated for EHEC O157:H7?

They can cause bacterial lysis and massive Shiga toxin release, increasing risk of hemolytic uremic syndrome.

23
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What is the first-line treatment for C. difficile?

Oral vancomycin, as it is not absorbed and stays in the colon.

24
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Why should fluoroquinolones not be used for Campylobacter infections?

Increasing resistance; azithromycin is preferred as first-line treatment.

25
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When should antibiotics be used for non-typhoidal Salmonella?

When patients are immunocompromised, bacteremic, or in cases of infants, elderly, or sickle cell disease.

26
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What happens when metronidazole is combined with alcohol?

Disulfiram-like reaction causing nausea, vomiting, flushing due to accumulation of acetaldehyde.

27
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What are the GI uses and warnings of fluoroquinolones?

Used for Salmonella, Shigella, and traveler's diarrhea; warnings include QT prolongation and potential tendon damage.

28
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What is ceftriaxone's association with biliary sludge?

Ceftriaxone can precipitate in bile, causing biliary sludge, especially in children on prolonged therapy.

29
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What GI organisms does metronidazole cover?

C. difficile, Bacteroides fragilis, Giardia, and amoebic infections.

30
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What is the mechanism of fluconazole and its primary uses?

Inhibits ergosterol synthesis and is used for Candida esophagitis and oropharyngeal candidiasis.

31
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What are the key facts about nystatin?

Binds ergosterol to form pores; too toxic for systemic use, only for oral/esophageal candidiasis.

32
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What is a unique side effect of voriconazole?

Visual disturbances, including photopsia and altered color vision.

33
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What is the mechanism and use of echinocandins?

Inhibit fungal cell wall synthesis; used for systemic Candida infections.

34
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What spectrum of infections does amphotericin B treat?

Broad spectrum including Candida, Aspergillus, and Cryptococcus; used for severe systemic fungal infections.

35
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What is the mechanism of acyclovir?

Activated by viral thymidine kinase; inhibits viral DNA polymerase, used for HSV esophagitis.

36
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What is ganciclovir primarily used for and its major toxicity?

Used for CMV colitis/esophagitis; major toxicity includes myelosuppression.

37
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When is foscarnet used?

For CMV and HSV resistant to ganciclovir/acyclovir; associated with nephrotoxicity and electrolyte disturbances.

38
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What is metronidazole’s role in treating parasitic infections?

First-line treatment for Giardia and Entamoeba histolytica; must follow with paromomycin.

39
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What does paromomycin treat?

Used for E. histolytica cyst eradication and is safe in pregnancy.

40
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What does albendazole treat and its contraindication?

Broad-spectrum antihelminthic for various parasites; teratogenic and contraindicated in pregnancy.

41
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What is the mechanism of ivermectin?

Enhances GABA transmission to cause paralysis in parasites; used for Strongyloides and scabies.

42
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What parasites are treated with praziquantel?

First-line for trematodes and cestodes, except in ocular cysticercosis.

43
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What is nitazoxanide's mechanism and unique side effect?

Inhibits anaerobic metabolism; causes harmless yellow-green urine.

44
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What is TMP-SMX's role in treating parasitic infections?

First-line for Cyclospora and Isospora; can cause hemolytic anemia in G6PD deficiency.

45
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Why should antibiotics be avoided in EHEC?

They can cause Shiga toxin release which increases the risk of HUS.

46
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Why shouldn't loperamide be given for bloody diarrhea?

May worsen conditions by prolonging toxin exposure in the gut.

47
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Why are PPIs a problem with itraconazole?

PPIs raise gastric pH, hindering itraconazole absorption which leads to treatment failure.

48
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Why must albendazole be given before aspirating an Echinococcus cyst?

To pre-treat for anaphylaxis risk from ruptured cyst fluid.

49
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What can happen if steroids are given without ruling out Strongyloides infection?

May lead to hyperinfection syndrome and life-threatening complications.

50
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What issue arises with pip-tazo and galactomannan assays?

Can cause false-positive results for Aspergillus, misleading diagnosis.

51
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Why should ganciclovir and zidovudine be avoided together?

Both cause myelosuppression, leading to severe leukopenia and thrombocytopenia.

52
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What is the alternative for treating pinworms in pregnancy?

Use pyrantel pamoate, as albendazole and mebendazole are teratogenic.