MQF

On takeoff, the navigator observes a red flashing light in one of the engine fire handles. This indicates

An engine overheat condition

A steady red light in one of the engine fire handles indicates

An engine fire

Circuit breakers should

Never be used as switches, Be pulled only during emergencies or maintenance, Or unless specifically directed in T.O. 1EC-130H-1

According to T.O. 1EC-130H-1, the navigator's Free Air Temperature Indicator indicates ambient outside air temperature and must be corrected for compressibility for true air temperature during flight. The navigator's indicator reads ____________ the pilot's when the radar is on.

Slightly higher than

Set the Mode Switch to ____ to set the AN/AAR-54 for normal operation with flares. While on the ground, the Weight on Wheels (WOW) switch inhibits dispense operation.

OPR/F

The AN/AAR sensor array consists of ___ passive sensors, ___ forward on the upper left and right side of the fuselage (above the flight deck), and ___ aft in the tail cone.

5, 2, 3

AN/AAR-54 will not transition to an operational mode without a properly identified UDM type smart card installed.

True

For the initial stages of AN/AAR-54 IBIT (approximately ___), if a threat is detected IBIT will terminate and the system resumes normal operation. During the last stages of IBIT (approximately ___), the MWS sensors are disabled and will not detect incoming missiles.

20 seconds, 3 seconds

______ pushbutton remote flare dispense switches are provided at ____________. The remote flare dispense switches are attached to cords to permit the operators freedom of movement.

3; the instructor pilot's position and each paratroop door

The JETT switch overrides the ___________ inhibit switch(es) in the OFF position. Do not move the JETT switch out of the OFF position unless jettison is required. Failure to follow these instructions may result in ejection of flares, causing injury or death to personnel or damage to the airplane.

RWR, JMR, MWS, O1, O2, CH and FL

If Defensive System Safety pins are installed, and the JETT switch is in the JETT position, the payload inventory display will count down, ____.

however flares will not jettison

To avoid damage to the CDU, the MODE switch must be ___ when engaging or disengaging the bypass function from any other position.

pushed in and turned

Placing the AN/ALE-47 MODE switch to OFF causes any program in progress except ___ to stop.

jettison

The AN/ALE-47 CMDS requires a ___ warmup when started from the OFF position. During warmup no dispensing is possible.

5 second

If the AN/ALE-47 CDU or programmer fails during flight, place the MODE switch to ___ so jettison can be initiated.

BYP

If POWER ON is selected on the SPS INTERFACE CONTROL PANEL and the AN/ALE-47 Safety Switch pins are removed, disengaging the TOUCHDOWN circuit breaker or positioning the WOW OVERRIDE switch to OVERRIDE, or jacking the airplane will override squib power control and arm the CMDS. This could result in ___.

an inadvertent stores ejection

Do not press the ___ switch to the _______position on the SPS INTERFACE CONTROL PANEL while the airplane is on the ground with expendable stores loaded.

WOW OVERRIDE, OVERRIDE

The ALE-47 JETT switch must remain in position for __ seconds, and once jettison is started _____.

10, it cannot be cancelled

Failure to install Defensive System Safety Pins after landing may result in serious injury or death to ground personnel due to inadvertent discharge. Should circumstances prevent proper SPS safetying, do not taxi near other airplanes until ______ can safety the system.

EOD personnel

The AN/AAQ-24 (LAIRCM) radiation hazard area is ________ and applies only to ground ops/confidence checks, where ground inhibits are deliberately overridden and the system is externally stimulated.

52 meters from aircraft centerline

In the air-to-air mode, the receiving airplane must select a TACAN channel _____ channels ________ the cooperating airplane's channel.

63, above or below

In addition to receiving signal from GPS satellites, the GPS-400S (CIV1/2) is designed to receive signals from the ________.

SBAS

The AHRS Control Panel is located at the navigator station and has the ability to test, level, and calibrate the AHRS system. Which of the following statements is true?

It is for maintenance use only. Toggling the switches will result in AHRS becoming unreliable

The AN/APS-150 can generate synthesized views created by volumetric buffer extraction. This means any view can be created immediately, without waiting for the next antenna scan

TRUE

When selecting TEST mode on the Radar Control Panel, the BIT will______.

Display a multicolored test pattern, take about 60 seconds to complete, and provide a failure annunciation, if detected

For the Radar Control Panel, when set to OFF, RF transmissions are______. The radar processor circuitry _______.

disabled; remains energized

Which of the following is true regarding MAP2 mode on the AN/APS-150 :

Manual mode may be needed to best illuminate a specific target

Predictive Windshear (PWS) detection is an automatic mode that is enabled at aircraft altitudes of ______ when ______ mode is selected.

below 1800 ft AGL; WX or MAP1

Predictive Windshear (PWS) scans for windshear _______ in azimuth and up to _______ ahead of the aircraft.

\+/- 40 degrees; 5 nm

Turbulence will not be displayed on the Radar screen when in manual mode.

TRUE

The MAP1 mode is an automated ground map in which the display presentation is developed from the volumetric buffer data. It detects prominent terrain features such as_________ and can be used as a check on navigation..

Coastlines, Cities, Large bodies of water at long ranges

The radar must be set to which mode to activate the Precision Ground Mapping functionality.

MAP2

During an operational checkout of the Doppler (on the GSDI), after setting the master selector switch to LAND or SEA, a ___ minute(s) warmup time is required.

1

If a Doppler radar set BIT failure occurs:

Set GSDI master selector to OFF and then to LAND, Reinitiate BIT twice to verify failure

What are the operating limitations of the Doppler radar system?

± 40º of roll, ± 25º of pitch

An oxygen shutoff valve is mounted _________.

At the navigator's console

The crew entrance door jettison handle is a yellow handle located on the________, 3 feet to the left of the center line of the airplane and slightly aft of the pilot's seat.

ceiling of the flight station

Although Halon 1211 vapor has low toxicity, its decomposition products can be hazardous. After fighting the fire, you should ________.

leave and/or ventilate the area

Life raft release handles are located __________

below the forward escape hatch, aft of the right paratroop door, and on the wing inboard of their respective life raft compartments

The six emergency exit lights (Group I & II airplanes) may be actuated by _______.

A decelerating force exceeding 2.5 G's, power failure on the essential DC bus, and turning the position switch to "ON"

41(41). A radiation hazard area for the AN/APS-150 (wx radar) search radar antenna exists for personnel within ____ feet and explosives prohibited area/possible fuel ignition area within _____ feet.

14, 3.5

HF radio antenna hazard area is approximately ____ feet.

5

Spear BIT personnel hazard area is _____.

20 ft

Personnel hazard area during special systems operations other than SPEAR is _____.

100ft

Explosives Prohibited Area is _____.

300ft

Cabin altitudes above ________ feet may cause damage to energized prime mission equipment

10,000

When thunderstorms are present in the area of intended landing, the possibility of encountering wind shear is increased. Indication(s) of wind shear is/are _________.

A large variation between reported surface wind and displayed winds on final approach, an unusually steep or shallow rate of descent required to maintain glidepath, and an unusually high or low power setting required to maintain approach airspeed

The standard ditching alarm signal is _________ to "PREPARE FOR DITCHING."

6 short rings

BAILOUT: The alarm bell signals for prepare to abandon airplane and bailout are _______.

3 short rings, 1 long sustained ring

GROUND EVACUATION: The alarm bell signal for abandon airplane is __________.

one long sustained ring

CRASH LANDING: What is the alarm bell signal for brace for impact?

1 long sustained ring

A serious bleed air system leak may cause electrical wires to burn. Which of the following may be an indication of this condition?

Inoperative or intermittent radar operation, Zero or fluctuating liquid oxygen quantity, and Erratic operation of electrical equipment

The chopping locations on the EC-130H are located __________.

above the paratroop doors

If a main wheel well fire exists, the area on both sides of the wheel will be cleared of personnel and equipment for at least _____ feet and if flares are loaded _____ feet.

300, 600

If conditions require personnel to be close to an overheated tire or tire assembly, the approach should only be from the _________.

Fore or aft

Two engine operations above _____ pounds gross weight or at high density altitude is marginal.

120,000

Do not dump fuel under _____ feet above the terrain to prevent possibility of a ground source igniting the fuel vapors.

5,000

If fire, smoke, fumes, or loss of refrigerant develop in the fuselage, notify the crew and passengers and proceed as follows:

OXYGEN: "ON, 100%.

If flammable fumes are present, the crewmembers should _______.

not turn on or off any electrical equipment

When the door warning light illuminates inflight, notify the crew and passengers and proceed as follows:

fasten your seat belt, remain clear of the crew entrance door, and don oxygen/smoke masks as directed by pilot and select 100% on the regulator.

f a rapid decompression occurs, proceed as follows:

OXYGEN - "ON, 100%" , Safety Belts - As Required, Descent - "As Required"

Bailout from the crew entrance door is not recommended:

at speeds above 150 knots, with the landing gear extended and DF antenna extended, without a helmet

\n f the airplane is under control and time permits, the order of preference for bailout exits is:

paratroop doors, cargo ramp and door in ADS position, and crew entrance door.

During preparation for a gear up landing, which exits should be opened?

Overhead emergency escape hatches and Paratroop doors

What should the navigator do in preparation for a gear-up landing?

Stow or secure all loose equipment, Turn off all unnecessary electrical equipment, Don helmet and gloves, lock shoulder harness inertial reel and face seat forward, Jettison flares, if loaded (provided there is no fuel leak or other potential danger)

When considering the option to bailout over water versus ditch, the following factors should be discussed (time permitting):

Distance to land or viable rescue resources, Wind or sea conditions, Aircraft controllability or condition.

Personnel must not leave their ditching position until _______.

the airplane has stopped forward movement

After ditching, personnel will not inflate their life vests until they______.

are outside of the airplane and clear of escape hatches

If the navigator remains in the flight station for ditching, after the airplane comes to a complete stop, he/she will ___________________________.

exit through the forward escape hatch and board the assigned life raft

For the first __ minute(s) after LAIRCM system power-up, the aircraft must remain stationary. Failure to observe this caution may cause equipment failure

2

The navigator may initiate items in the _______ checklist not requiring crew coordination prior to the pilot calling for it, provided the airplane is off the runway.

Engine Shutdown

Do not exceed ______ with the landing gear extended.

165 KIAS

Landing gross weights greater than _____ pounds should be limited to emergency situations.

155,000

Do not exceed the following taxi speeds:

20 knots maximum recommended on hard surface taxiways.

What is the maximum tire rotation speed (GS) for the nose gear?

139 KIAS

Removing SPEAR Pods/Pylons would reduce the EC-130H's equivalent drag index by____.

16

Removing low bands would reduce the EC-130H's equivalent drag index by____

38

Service Ceiling - The altitude at which the maximum rate of climb capability at maximum continuous power and best climb speed is ___ feet per minute.

100

Cruise Ceiling - The altitude at which the maximum rate of climb capability at maximum continuous power and best climb speed is ___ feet per minute

300

For large headwinds, the airspeed for best miles per pound of fuel increases. If headwinds of more than 70 knots are encountered, increasing the cruise TAS by ___ knots for every ___ knots above 70 knots headwind will result in operating the airplane near the maximum nautical miles per pound of fuel.

4,10

In the EC-130H, ______ measurements are provided by Rig Laser Gyros (RLGs) and accelerometers.

INS

A battery is installed next to the INU. In the event of power interruptions, the battery sustains INU operation for up to _______

30 minutes

The _______ provides the user an interface to transfer data from various storage types to the FMS and is located in the aft Nav panel.

DTU

A _______ can be set up at the present position of the aircraft causing the FMS to automatically load it into the flight plan. Present position ______are inbound on the current course with right hand turns and leg lenthings of 1.0 or 1.5 min, based on altitude and aircraft specifications

HOLD

The ADC calculates and outputs the air data parameters that follow on six independently buffered low-speed and high speed ARINC 429 data buses. Which of the following is not an ADC calculated parameter.

Drift Angle

The EC-130 INUs output data on the ______ data bus reflects aircraft acceleration and velocity, present position, frift, heading, attitude, baro-inertial information, and time tags.

1553B

The key to preventing spoofing is to deploy a GPS receiver that can acquire encrypted GPS signals. The SAASM GPS receiver (MGPS) can receive and decrypt the _______ code, which authenticates that the signal originated from the GPS satellite.

P(Y)

The FMS contains two navigation databases, the active and the secondary database. How long are each of the databases valid for.

28 Days

The Flux Detector Unit (FDU) is a gimbaled dual-axis magnetic sensor that detects the horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field. Where are the FDUs located?

LH wingtip and RH wingtip

On the CDU, large text fonts are used for display page titles, data lines with a mode selection or data entry capability, override date entries, and active mode selections. Small fonts are used for what?

Label Lines, FMS calculated data entries, Unselected mode functions

DES SOLN is displayed on different sides of the INAV page and is based on the FMS Navigation Selected Solution that is selected by the _________

Designated Pilot

The FMS position source/solution is selected automatically and will switch to an alternate solution upon degradation of the selected solution

FALSE

The runway extension WPT indicates the length of the runway extension visual aid from the threshold of the runway to input number with a range of ___ to ____ nm and a default value of ___ NM

0\.1, 25, 5

When performing an INU alignment and the Auto-Nav is set to OFF, Navigators are required to select__________ in the associated INAV SENSOR page to transition the INU from Alignment to NAVIGATE mode.

ENBL NAV

Between 2 nm from the FAF up to the FAF, if the GPS approach is enabled and FAF WPT sequencing conditions are met, the FMS will automatically do what?

Smoothly transition to approach deviation sensitivity(+/-0.3 nm) and Begins monitoring for approach navigation accuracy (RAIM)

The Airborne Integrated Terminal (AIT) Receiver/Modem has a battery compartment to house a 9-volt battery. A fully charged 9-volt battery allows retention of INFOSEC keys for up to _________ during times of primary power outage.

1 Hour

If it is determined that the aircraft will land safely at the intended destination, but with less than the required minimum or emergency fuel reserves:

declare "minimum fuel" or "emergency fuel" to controlling agency

An alternate is required when the worst weather at destination, to include TEMPO conditions, at the ETA ±1 hour is less than a ceiling of _______ and a visibility of __.

2,000 ft; 3 SM

File an alternate airfield when ________ at destination airfield.

a compatible instrument approach is not available and forecast crosswinds are outside crosswind limitations

Aircrews may file to an alternate with a published instrument approach when the forecasted weather (ETA +/- 1 hr) includes ____________.

a ceiling of 1000 ft., or 500 ft. above the lowest compatible minimum, whichever is higher and a visibility of 2 SM, or 1 SM above the lowest compatible minimum, whichever is higher