PHARMA HIGH YIELD 4TH SE

A 45-year-old man presents with recurrent genital vesicles. Which drug requires viral thymidine kinase for activation and is most appropriate? a. Foscarnet b. Acyclovir c. Ribavirin d. Oseltamivir

b. Acyclovir

A 60-year-old HIV patient develops severe hypersensitivity with chest pain after starting therapy. Which drug is most likely responsible? a. Zidovudine b. Efavirenz c. Abacavir d. Tenofovir

c. Abacavir

Which antiviral directly inhibits viral neuraminidase? a. Acyclovir b. Ganciclovir c. Oseltamivir d. Ribavirin

c. Oseltamivir

Which antiviral does NOT require phosphorylation for activation? a. Valacyclovir b. Ganciclovir c. Foscarnet d. Acyclovir

c. Foscarnet

A drug used in CMV retinitis that causes bone marrow suppression is: a. Acyclovir b. Ganciclovir c. Tenofovir d. Lamivudine

b. Ganciclovir

Which antiviral inhibits viral DNA polymerase and causes chain termination? a. Acyclovir b. Oseltamivir c. Interferon d. Ribavirin

a. Acyclovir

Which antiviral has major nephrotoxicity as an adverse effect? a. Cidofovir b. Acyclovir c. Zidovudine d. Lamivudine

a. Cidofovir

Interferon-alpha exerts its antiviral effect primarily by: a. Destroying viral DNA b. Inhibiting protein synthesis c. Blocking viral entry d. Increasing viral replication

b. Inhibiting protein synthesis

Which is NOT a reverse transcriptase inhibitor? a. Lamivudine b. Tenofovir c. Ribavirin d. Zidovudine

c. Ribavirin

A patient with influenza is given a drug that prevents viral release from host cells. Which drug is this? a. Ribavirin b. Oseltamivir c. Acyclovir d. Interferon

b. Oseltamivir

Which anti-TB drug inhibits mycolic acid synthesis? a. Ethambutol b. Rifampicin c. Isoniazid d. Pyrazinamide

c. Isoniazid

Which drug causes optic neuritis and red-green color blindness? a. Isoniazid b. Ethambutol c. Rifampicin d. Streptomycin

b. Ethambutol

Which anti-TB drug causes hyperuricemia? a. INH b. Pyrazinamide c. Rifampicin d. Ethambutol

b. Pyrazinamide

Rifampicin mechanism is inhibition of: a. DNA polymerase b. RNA polymerase c. Ribosomes d. Cell wall

b. RNA polymerase

Which drug causes peripheral neuropathy prevented by pyridoxine? a. Rifampicin b. Ethambutol c. INH d. Pyrazinamide

c. INH

Which TB classification is resistant to both INH and Rifampicin? a. DR-TB b. MDR-TB c. XDR-TB d. Mono-resistant

b. MDR-TB

Which drug causes orange discoloration of body fluids? a. Ethambutol b. Rifampicin c. INH d. Pyrazinamide

b. Rifampicin

A patient develops hepatotoxicity while on TB treatment. Which drug is MOST likely responsible? a. Ethambutol b. INH c. Streptomycin d. Rifampicin

b. INH

Which drug inhibits arabinosyl transferase? a. INH b. Rifampicin c. Ethambutol d. Pyrazinamide

c. Ethambutol

Which drug works best in acidic environments within macrophages? a. INH b. Rifampicin c. Pyrazinamide d. Ethambutol

c. Pyrazinamide

Beta-lactam antibiotics inhibit: a. Protein synthesis b. DNA replication c. Cell wall synthesis d. RNA synthesis

c. Cell wall synthesis

Penicillins act by inhibiting: a. Transpeptidation b. Translation c. Transcription d. DNA replication

a. Transpeptidation

Which penicillin is resistant to beta-lactamase? a. Penicillin G b. Amoxicillin c. Nafcillin d. Ampicillin

c. Nafcillin

Which mechanism causes resistance to beta-lactams? a. Ribosomal mutation b. Beta-lactamase production c. DNA inhibition d. Efflux inhibition

b. Beta-lactamase production

Which penicillin has extended gram-negative coverage? a. Penicillin V b. Amoxicillin c. Nafcillin d. Dicloxacillin

b. Amoxicillin

Which drug is DOC for serious staphylococcal infection? a. Penicillin G b. Ampicillin c. Nafcillin d. Amoxicillin

c. Nafcillin

Amphotericin B works by: a. DNA inhibition b. Binding ergosterol c. RNA inhibition d. Cell wall inhibition

b. Binding ergosterol

Major toxicity of Amphotericin B: a. Hepatotoxicity b. Nephrotoxicity c. Cardiotoxicity d. Neurotoxicity

b. Nephrotoxicity

Fluconazole is preferred because it: a. Has poor absorption b. Penetrates CSF c. Causes nephrotoxicity d. Is inactive orally

b. Penetrates CSF

Azoles inhibit: a. DNA synthesis b. Ergosterol synthesis c. RNA synthesis d. Cell wall

b. Ergosterol synthesis

Flucytosine inhibits: a. Cell wall b. Protein synthesis c. DNA/RNA synthesis d. Membrane

c. DNA/RNA synthesis

Drug of choice for neurocysticercosis: a. Praziquantel b. Albendazole c. Ivermectin d. Niclosamide

b. Albendazole

Drug of choice for onchocerciasis: a. DEC b. Albendazole c. Ivermectin d. Praziquantel

c. Ivermectin

DEC is used for: a. Trematodes b. Tapeworm c. Filaria d. Protozoa

c. Filaria

Praziquantel works by: a. DNA inhibition b. Calcium influx c. RNA inhibition d. Microtubule inhibition

b. Calcium influx

Niclosamide kills: a. Eggs b. Larvae c. Adult worms d. All stages

c. Adult worms

Pyrantel pamoate acts as: a. Calcium blocker b. Depolarizing neuromuscular blocker c. DNA inhibitor d. RNA inhibitor

b. Depolarizing neuromuscular blocker

Ivermectin mechanism is: a. DNA inhibition b. GABA activation c. Protein synthesis d. Cell wall inhibition

b. GABA activation

Albendazole mechanism is: a. DNA inhibition b. Microtubule inhibition c. RNA inhibition d. Cell wall inhibition

b. Microtubule inhibition

A patient with candidemia is treated with a drug that binds ergosterol and forms pores in the fungal membrane. Which drug is most likely used? a. Fluconazole b. Amphotericin B c. Flucytosine d. Ketoconazole

b. Amphotericin B

Which antifungal drug is associated with dose-dependent nephrotoxicity? a. Fluconazole b. Amphotericin B c. Flucytosine d. Itraconazole

b. Amphotericin B

Flucytosine exerts its effect by: a. Inhibiting ergosterol synthesis b. Binding cell membrane c. Inhibiting DNA/RNA synthesis d. Blocking microtubules

c. Inhibiting DNA/RNA synthesis

Which antifungal crosses the blood-brain barrier effectively? a. Ketoconazole b. Fluconazole c. Amphotericin B d. Clotrimazole

b. Fluconazole

Azole antifungals act by inhibiting: a. DNA synthesis b. RNA synthesis c. Ergosterol synthesis d. Cell wall formation

c. Ergosterol synthesis

Ketoconazole is limited in use due to: a. Nephrotoxicity b. CNS toxicity c. CYP450 inhibition d. Bone marrow suppression

c. CYP450 inhibition

Which antifungal has synergy with amphotericin B? a. Fluconazole b. Flucytosine c. Ketoconazole d. Itraconazole

b. Flucytosine

Which antifungal causes bone marrow suppression? a. Amphotericin B b. Fluconazole c. Flucytosine d. Clotrimazole

c. Flucytosine

A patient develops infusion-related fever and chills during antifungal therapy. Which drug is most likely responsible? a. Fluconazole b. Amphotericin B c. Ketoconazole d. Flucytosine

b. Amphotericin B

Which antifungal is safe for topical use during pregnancy? a. Ketoconazole b. Fluconazole c. Miconazole d. Amphotericin B

c. Miconazole

A patient with onchocerciasis presents with pruritus after treatment due to dying microfilariae. Which drug was given? a. Albendazole b. Ivermectin c. Praziquantel d. Niclosamide

b. Ivermectin

A drug that inhibits microtubule formation in parasites is: a. Praziquantel b. Albendazole c. Niclosamide d. DEC

b. Albendazole

A drug that increases calcium permeability leading to paralysis of helminths is: a. Ivermectin b. Praziquantel c. Albendazole d. Pyrantel pamoate

b. Praziquantel

A patient with filariasis is treated with a drug that immobilizes microfilariae. Which is most likely used? a. Ivermectin b. DEC c. Albendazole d. Niclosamide

b. DEC

Which drug is DOC for Strongyloides infection? a. Albendazole b. Praziquantel c. Ivermectin d. Niclosamide

c. Ivermectin

Which antihelminthic acts as a depolarizing neuromuscular blocker? a. Albendazole b. Pyrantel pamoate c. Praziquantel d. Niclosamide

b. Pyrantel pamoate

Which antihelminthic is NOT effective against Strongyloides? a. Ivermectin b. Albendazole c. Pyrantel pamoate d. Thiabendazole

c. Pyrantel pamoate

Which drug is used for schistosomiasis? a. Albendazole b. Praziquantel c. Ivermectin d. DEC

b. Praziquantel

A patient with tapeworm infection is treated with a drug that inhibits ATP production. Which is most likely used? a. Praziquantel b. Niclosamide c. Albendazole d. Ivermectin

b. Niclosamide

A drug that enhances GABA activity leading to paralysis of parasites is: a. Praziquantel b. Albendazole c. Ivermectin d. DEC

c. Ivermectin

A drug used in echinococcosis before surgery is: a. Praziquantel b. Albendazole c. Niclosamide d. Pyrantel pamoate

b. Albendazole

Which drug is contraindicated in ocular cysticercosis? a. Albendazole b. Praziquantel c. Ivermectin d. Pyrantel pamoate

b. Praziquantel

A patient develops fever and itching after filariasis treatment due to hypersensitivity. Which drug caused this? a. Albendazole b. DEC c. Praziquantel d. Niclosamide

b. DEC

A drug that acts mainly in the intestinal lumen is: a. Albendazole b. Ivermectin c. Pyrantel pamoate d. Praziquantel

c. Pyrantel pamoate

Which drug is DOC for fascioliasis? a. Praziquantel b. Albendazole c. Triclabendazole d. Niclosamide

c. Triclabendazole

Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by: a. IgG b. IgM c. IgE d. T cells

c. IgE

Type II hypersensitivity involves: a. Immune complexes b. IgG/IgM c. T cells d. Cytokines

b. IgG/IgM

Type III hypersensitivity involves: a. IgE b. T cells c. Immune complexes d. NK cells

c. Immune complexes

Type IV hypersensitivity is: a. Immediate b. Antibody-mediated c. Delayed T-cell mediated d. Complement mediated

c. Delayed T-cell mediated

Corticosteroids decrease synthesis of: a. Cytokines b. DNA c. RNA d. Proteins

a. Cytokines

Calcineurin inhibitors act by: a. DNA inhibition b. Blocking IL-2 production c. Increasing T-cell activity d. Complement activation

b. Blocking IL-2 production

Cyclosporine binds to: a. FKBP b. Cyclophilin c. DNA d. Ribosomes

b. Cyclophilin

Tacrolimus binds to: a. Cyclophilin b. FKBP c. DNA d. RNA

b. FKBP

mTOR inhibitors act by: a. DNA inhibition b. Blocking cell growth pathways c. RNA inhibition d. Complement inhibition

b. Blocking cell growth pathways

Which immune response is antigen-specific and has memory? a. Innate b. Adaptive c. Inflammatory d. Complement

b. Adaptive

Innate immunity is characterized by: a. Memory b. Antigen specificity c. Immediate response d. Delayed response

c. Immediate response

Which cells are involved in innate immunity? a. T cells b. B cells c. NK cells d. Plasma cells

c. NK cells

Antigen-presenting cells include: a. RBCs b. Neurons c. Macrophages d. Platelets

c. Macrophages

Which hypersensitivity occurs within minutes? a. Type I b. Type II c. Type III d. Type IV

a. Type I

Which hypersensitivity occurs 2–3 days after exposure? a. Type I b. Type II c. Type III d. Type IV

d. Type IV