Infection Control, Sterilization, and Patient Positioning in Radiography

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Last updated 12:50 AM on 4/28/26
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121 Terms

1
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What must be done to prevent transmission when transporting a patient with a contagious respiratory infection?

The patient must wear a mask.

2
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What must a radiographer don when performing a bedside chest radiograph on a patient under airborne precautions?

A particulate respirator.

3
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What is an inexpensive environmental surface germicide effective against HIV according to the CDC?

A solution of 1 part sodium hypochlorite (bleach) to 10 parts water.

4
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What does hand hygiene include?

Soap and water, alcohol-based hand rubs, and antiseptic hand wash.

5
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What are the precautions for a compromised patient?

Cleaning equipment before entering the room, performing hand hygiene before entering the room, and the use of masks, gowns, and sometimes gloves.

6
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What is the definition of medical asepsis?

Reducing the probability of infectious organisms being transmitted to a susceptible individual.

7
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What is the current CDC recommendation for isolating patients with known infections?

Standard precautions.

8
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What is isolation technique?

The practice of separating infectious patients from others and carefully controlling items that come in contact with these patients.

9
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Under protective precautions, what is the role of the radiographer handling the x-ray unit?

The radiographer drops the image receptor into a clean or sterile cover.

10
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What is the first step upon completion of an isolation procedure?

Perform hand hygiene.

11
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When does the CDC recommend hand washing instead of alcohol-based hand rubs?

When hands are visibly soiled following patient contact.

12
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In portable radiography for an isolation patient, what does the 'dirty' radiographer handle?

The patient and the covered image receptor.

13
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What is the proper procedure for disposal of a safety needle and syringe?

Recap the needle, do not remove from syringe, and dispose of the syringe in a sharps container.

14
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Which action regarding patient linens violates infection control guidelines?

Shaking soiled linens to remove loose material before placing them in the hamper.

15
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Which transmission-based precautions are used for multidrug-resistant wound infections?

Contact precautions.

16
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What is a topical antiseptic like Betadine used for?

Skin preparation for a sterile injection.

17
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How should a dressing be disposed of after removal?

Seal it in a plastic bag and drop it in a biohazard container.

18
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Which sterilization method does not have special indicators that change color to signify sterilization?

Chemical sterilization.

19
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Which method is used to sterilize instruments with long, narrow lumina?

Gas plasma technology.

20
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What are the criteria for a package to be considered sterile?

The expiration date has not been exceeded, sterility indicators have changed color, and the package is clean, dry, unopened, and unpunctured.

21
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When is sterile technique necessary?

During the application of a surgical dressing.

22
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Sterilization is essential to which type of asepsis?

Surgical asepsis.

23
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Which item should not be donned before a surgical hand scrub?

Sterile gown.

24
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What is the treatment used to make an item germ-free called?

Sterilization.

25
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When using the open gloving technique, how should you handle the gloves?

Grasp the first glove by the fold and the second glove by inserting your fingers under the cuff.

26
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When is the closed gloving method performed?

After donning the sterile gown.

27
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When opening a sterile pack, which direction should the first corner be opened?

Away from you.

28
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What is an acceptable alternative to a surgical hand scrub?

Surgical hand rub.

29
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Which item is not needed for a presurgical skin preparation?

Sterile gown.

30
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Which sterilization method is considered safer for heat- and moisture-sensitive items?

Gas plasma technology.

31
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Which procedure requires an assistant?

Sterile gowning.

32
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What is the most practical sterilization method in a hospital for items that can withstand heat and moisture?

Autoclaving.

33
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Which sterilization method requires items to be aerated before use?

Conventional gas sterilization.

34
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What is the Fowler position?

A body position where the patient is lying on their back with the head and upper body elevated.

35
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A conscious patient with moist and trembling hands is likely suffering from what?

Anxiety.

36
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What is the prone position?

A position in which the patient is lying flat on his or her stomach.

37
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What is the Trendelenburg position?

A position in which the patient is on his or her back with the head lower than the feet.

38
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If a patient complains of thirst due to anxiety, what should you do?

Check the chart before offering anything.

39
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How should you handle a patient's dentures, glasses, or hearing aids?

Place them in a container in the x-ray room and inform the patient of their location.

40
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If an ambulatory patient needs to urinate and a specimen is required, what should you do?

Provide supplies and instructions for obtaining a clean catch midstream specimen.

41
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What do patients with orthopnea require?

Their heads must be elevated in order to breathe.

42
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What is the Pigg-O-Stat used for?

To immobilize infants for upright chest radiography.

43
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What does the term 'recumbent' mean?

Lying down.

44
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To avoid decubitus ulcers in the elderly, what steps should be taken?

Keep skin clean and dry, avoid bumps that cause abrasions, and provide padding under bony prominences.

45
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What is the primary purpose of medical asepsis?

To reduce the number of microorganisms and prevent their spread.

46
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What is the primary purpose of surgical asepsis?

To eliminate all microorganisms and their spores from an object or area.

47
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What does the medical order NPO mean?

Nothing is to be given by mouth.

48
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What is the appropriate action when suspecting elder abuse in a patient?

Report the suspected abuse to your supervisor.

49
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What is the best course of action if you have not completed a procedure when your scheduled lunch break arrives?

Postpone your meal until the procedure is completed.

50
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What tasks must be completed after draining a urinary collection bag?

Measure the urine, empty the container, chart the amount, and perform hand hygiene.

51
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What observations should cause a healthcare worker to suspect child abuse?

Cigarette burn marks, bruises shaped like hands or objects, and failure to seek prompt treatment for serious injuries.

52
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What is the most comfortable position for a patient suffering from severe abdominal pain?

Elevating the head and placing a bolster under the knees.

53
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What is a normal oxygen saturation value range?

95% to 100%.

54
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What is a pulse oximeter?

An instrument that measures heart rate and the oxygen saturation of hemoglobin.

55
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When are body temperatures typically at their lowest?

In the morning.

56
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What does PVC stand for in electrocardiography?

Premature ventricular contraction.

57
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Why is it important for radiographers to develop patient assessment skills?

To meet patient needs and set priorities.

58
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Why might rectal temperatures be contraindicated?

The procedure may stimulate the vagus nerve.

59
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What is tachycardia combined with a weak or thready pulse usually a result of?

Low blood volume.

60
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What does the term diaphoretic mean?

Sweating.

61
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What is the most likely cause of tingling in the hands and feet, dizziness, and rapid respiratory rate in an anxious patient?

Hyperventilation.

62
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What type of question should be used to begin a patient history?

Open-ended.

63
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What is the definition of tachypnea?

Breathing more than 20 breaths per minute.

64
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Where should a radiographer check for signs of cyanosis?

The lips and nail beds.

65
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When is it not advisable to take a temperature orally?

When the patient has had a hot or cold beverage, is receiving oxygen, or is breathing through the mouth.

66
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Which blood pressure reading is categorized as stage 1 hypertension?

140/90 mmHg.

67
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What blood pressure reading is considered within the 'normal' range?

115/75 mmHg.

68
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Which device is no longer used in hospitals to monitor body temperature?

Mercury glass thermometers.

69
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Which laboratory test is not used to determine the blood's ability to clot?

Complete blood count (CBC) or metabolic panels (as they do not measure clotting factors).

70
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Which laboratory value is the best indicator of kidney function?

Creatinine

71
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Which route for monitoring body temperature is rarely used for adults?

A disposable thermometer applied to the forehead

72
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Which site should be used to monitor an irregular or slow pulse?

Apex of the heart-apical pulse

73
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What is a true statement regarding electrocardiograms?

They are frequently used to monitor patients over time.

74
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What does a medical history for a radiographic examination include?

It includes pertinent information about the patient and indicates the reason for the examination.

75
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Why should you not use your thumb to take a pulse?

The pulse in your thumb may be felt instead of the patient's pulse.

76
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What is a drug called that attaches to cell receptors and prevents other chemicals from acting?

An antagonist

77
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What does it mean when a medication is characterized by efficacy?

It is effective.

78
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What characterizes controlled substances?

Drugs with a high abuse potential.

79
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What is the purpose of anticholinergic drugs given before surgery?

Suppressing secretions.

80
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What is the purpose of Flumazenil (Romazicon) and naloxone (Narcan)?

To reverse the sedation of other drugs.

81
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How do generic medications compare to proprietary medications?

They are the same as, but less expensive than, proprietary medications.

82
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What category do insulin, tolbutamide, and metformin belong to?

Hypoglycemic agents.

83
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What are Succinylcholine chloride and mivacurium examples of?

Paralytic agents.

84
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What is a drug that treats a toxic effect called?

An antidote.

85
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How can the effects of central nervous system depressants be monitored?

By a pulse oximeter.

86
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What is the radiographer's role in medication administration?

Preparing the medication for administration and monitoring the patient after it has been given.

87
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What does the term 'excretion' refer to in pharmacology?

The elimination of drugs from the body after they have been metabolized.

88
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What does 'pharmacokinetics' refer to?

The study of the physiological movement of medications.

89
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What is another name for the trade name of a medication?

Proprietary name.

90
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What factors can lead to toxic effects due to drug accumulation?

Overdose, impaired elimination, and advanced age.

91
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What is an adverse response to a medication due to sensitization to a previous dose?

An allergic effect.

92
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What is an adverse response to a medication caused by interaction with other drugs?

A synergistic effect.

93
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What is an unexpected or unusual response to a medication called?

An idiosyncratic effect.

94
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What is a common antihistamine kept in the radiology department?

Diphenhydramine (Benadryl).

95
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What are the four pharmacokinetic processes of medications?

Absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion.

96
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Which drugs are considered controlled substances under the Harrison Act?

Morphine, cocaine, marijuana, and LSD.

97
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Which corticosteroid is used as an anti-inflammatory to reduce edema of the tracheobronchial tree?

Methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol)

98
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Which types of medication may cause respiratory depression?

Opiates and opioids.

99
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What are two reliable, trusted resources for a radiographer to learn about a medication?

Physician's Desk Reference and Clinical Pharmacology.

100
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What does the term 'potent' mean in relation to a medication?

Powerful.