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Which of the following is a type of exotoxin?
Superantigen
all of these
Membrane Disrupting toxin
AB toxin
all of these
A pathogen that is able to establish an infection
in an otherwise healthy host is referred to as a:
primary pathogen
opportunistic pathogen
transient pathogen
secondary pathogen
primary pathogen
A disease that can be transmitted from host to
host by direct contact is a ____ disease.
communicable
contagious
nasty
noncommunicable
communicable
An abnormal increase in the number of cases
of a disease in a population is referred to as
a/an:
endemic
pandemic
sporadic
epidemic
epidemic
A disease in which there are periods of
pathogen inactivity or dormancy is a __
disease.
chronic
subacute
latent
acute
latent
An infection that involves multiple sites and/or
organs and tissues is classified as:
subclinical
localized
systemic
focal
systemic
The stage of disease development with mild
sign and symptoms is:
convalescence
incubation
illness
prodromal
prodromal
The 3 categories of vehicle transmission
include all of the following except:
water borne
food borne
new borne
air borne
new borne
A wound infection would be an example of
which portal of entry?
mucous membranes
skin
parenteral route
parenteral route
The most common portal of entry for human
pathogens is:
parenteral route
skin
mucous membranes
mucous membranes
Which of the following is not a virulence factor?
penetration of host cells
all are virulence factors
cell wall/membrane components
capsule
antigenic variation
enzymes
all are virulence factors
Which of the following exotoxin types include
an active portion and a binding portion.
superantigens
membrane disrupting toxins
AB toxins
endotoxins
AB toxins
What would be the most likely portal of exit for
a respiratory pathogen?
urination
a vector
defecation
respiration
respiration
Which of the following is responsible for
antigen recognition and presentation?
Rh factor
MHC 2
MHC 1
ABO group antigens
MHC 2
Which of the following complement
components has 2 jobs? Specifically the
outcome opsinization and the activation of C5.
C3a
C3b
C2b
C4a
C3b
One of the important functions of fever is to
increase the proliferation of ___.
white blood cells
red blood cells
antibodies
antigens
white blood cells
All 3 Activation Pathways are identical after the
activation of:
C5
C4
C3
C2
C3
Which enzyme is responsible for urea hydrolysis?
none of these
catalase
urease
ammonium phosphatas
What is the black precipitate in the SIM media?
thiosulfate reductase
hydrogen sulfide
cysteine desulf
urase
acetoin
hydrogen sulfide
Which enzyme causes effervescence
(bubbling) of hydrogen peroxide when added
to bacterial growth?
beta-galactosidase
catalase
sucrase
urease
catalase
The inhibitory substance/s in an EMB plate
is/are:
eosin-y and methylene blue
bile salts and crystal violet
high salt content
eosin-y and methylene blue
Antibodies passed in breast milk is an example
of:
Artificial Active Immunity
Artificial Passive Immunity
Natural Passive Immunity
Natural Active Immunity
Natural Passive Immunity
Which T cell type is responsible for controlling
an immune response and bringing ti to an end
when there is no longer circulating antigen?
T regulator/suppressor
T cytotoxic
T helper
T natural killer
T regulator/suppressor
In which immune response may signs and
symptoms of disease be reduced or absent?
Secondary
Primary
Secondary
Which antibody class is found on the surface of
B cells and is responsible for B cell activation?
M
D
E
A
G
D
Which antibody class can cross the placental
barrier?
E
A
G
M
D
G
Which antibody class is found bound to the
surface of Mast cells and basophils?
D
A
M
E
G
E
Which antibody class is a pentamer?
M
E
G
D
A
M
Which B cell daughter cell is responsible for
producing antibodies against the antigen that
activated the parent cell?
plasma cell
memory cell
plasma cell
What self antigen is found on all nucleated
body cells?
MHC 1
MHC 2
MHC 1
Which hypersensitivity involves cytotoxic T
cells and can take several days to develop?
4
2
1
3
4
The only antibody class which can cross the
placental barrier is _____.
IgA
IgE
IgG
IgD
IgG
The antibody binding sites are found on the
___ region of the antibody molecule.
constant
variable
variable
A microbe with bound BDP factors is the trigger for the _________ Pathway for complement activation.
Classical
Alternate
Lectin
Alternate
The 2 inflammatory mediators not present in
the Alternate Pathway are:
C2a, C4b
C2b, C4a
C3a, C5a
C5b, C6
C2b, C4a
IgG is the antibody class produced first in the
_________ immune response.
secondary
primary
secondary
Which of the following is not a goal of the
inflammatory response?
isolate the site
attract WBCs to the site
produce antibody
initiate repair
produce antibody
Which fungal division produces asexual
conidiospores and sexual ascospores?
Basidiomycota
Deuteromycota
Ascomycota
Zygomycota
Ascomycota
Which fungal division produces asexual
sporangiospores?
Zygomycota
Basidiomycota
Deuteromycota
Ascomycota
Zygomycota
Which of the following fungal pathogens
causes vaginitis? (this pathogen also causes
thrush)
Candida albicans
Coccidiodes immits
Basidiobolus ranum
Histoplasma capsulatum
Candida albicans
Which of the following Tineas affects the groin
region?
capitis
cruris
pedis
corporis
cruris
Which of the following could be described as a
reinforced cell membrane?
cytostome
contractile vacuole
oral groove
pellicle
pellicle
Which of the following protozoan pathogens
causes African Sleeping Sickness?
Trichura trichuriae
Trypanosoma cruzi
Trichomonas vaginalis
Trypanosoma brucei
Trypanosoma brucei
Which of the following is NOT transmitted via
the fecal/oral route?
Ascaris lumbricoides
Enterobius vermicularis
Dracunculus medinensis
Dracunculus medinensis
Larva invading the sin from the soil is the mode
of transmission for:
Ancyclostoma duodenale and Necatur
americanus
Wucheria bancrofti and Brugia malayi
Ancyclostoma duodenale and Necatur
americanus
Which of the following is not a genus that causes fungal tineas?
Epidermaphyton
Microsporum
Candida
Trichophyton
Candida
Which of the following is the causative agent
for pinworms?
Necator americanus
Enterobius vermicularis
Ascaris lumbricoides
Trichomonas vaginalis
Enterobius vermicularis
Trypanosoma cruzi is the causative agent for:
African Sleeping Sickness
Malaria
Toxoplasmosis
Chagas disease
Chagas disease
Which fungal division only has asexual spores?
Zygomycota
Basidiomycota
Deuteromycota
Ascomycota
Deuteromycota
Which of the following is a species of
Plasmodium which causes malaria?
all of these
falciparnum
malariae
ovale
vivax
all of these
Which protozoan disease that we discussed is
considered a sexually transmitted disease?
Giardiasis
Trichomoniasis
Toxoplasmosis
Trichenosis
Trichomoniasis
Which protozoan group is motile by flagella?
Sarcodina
Apicomplexa
Mastigophora
Ciliophora
Mastigophora
Which of the following diseases is not
transmitted by the fecal/oral route?
Typhoid
all of these
Syphilis
Cholera
Syphilis
Which of the following genera is responsible
for Leprosy and Tuberculosis?
Staphylococcus
Mycoplasma
Treponema
Mycobacterium
Streptococcus
Mycobacterium
Impetigo and Scalded Skin Syndrome can be
caused by bacteria that are often present in
our noses. That bacteria is:
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Staphylococcus aureus
Clostridium perfringens
Streptococcus pyogens
Staphylococcus aureus
The causative agent for Lyme disease is:
Bordetella pertussis
Ehrlichia spp.
Bartonella quintana
Borellia bburgdorferi
Borellia bburgdorferi
Tularemia is transmitted by:
mosquitoes
ticks or mites
lice
kissing bug
ticks or mites
In the generalized animal virus: The stage in
which the viral nucleic acid is written into the
host cell's nucleic acid is:
Release
Assembly
Entry/Uncoating
Synthesis
Attachment/Adsorption
Synthesis
An animal virus may be released by exocytosis,
budding or lysis. A bacteriophage can only be
released by:
all of these
lysis
budding
exocytosis
lysis
Which of the following cannot be transmitted
by mosquitoes?
Ebola
Yellow Fever
West Nile
Dengue Fever
Ebola
Which of the following may be treated with a
post exposure vaccination?
Rabies
Rubella
HPV
Hantavirus Respiratory Syndrome
Rabies
Requires a co-infector to establish an infection
in a host best describes:
a satellite virus
a prion
none of these
a viroid
a satellite virus