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Last updated 3:05 PM on 11/19/24
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72 Terms

1
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What is the role of the diaphragm in digestion?

Prevent backflow of the bolus into the oesophagus.

2
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What medical instrument is used to perform an upper GI endoscopy?

Flexible fibre optic endoscope.

3
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What does the oesophagus appear like when viewed through an endoscope?

White and smooth due to the squamous epithelium lining.

4
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Why may some areas of the oesophagus appear red in certain patients?

The red areas indicate the presence of glandular epithelium, which is abnormal.

5
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Where can adenocarcinoma develop?

Only in areas with glandular tissue.

6
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Which groups of people are more at risk for developing oesophageal cancers?

Males and patients between the ages of 70 and 80.

7
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What are the 5-year survival rates for oesophageal cancers?

Below 10%.

8
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What occurs during Helicobacter gastritis?

H. pylori lives in the mucin layer, attracting inflammatory cells and causing acute inflammation.

9
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Why is there a reducing incidence rate of gastric cancers?

Some cancers previously diagnosed as gastric are now classified as oesophageal cancers.

10
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What environmental factors increase the risk of gastric cancer?

Smoked food and pickled food.

11
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What chain of events leads from normal gastric mucosa to invasive carcinoma?

Gastric mucosa differentiates into intestinal metaplasia, then dysplasia, and finally into invasive carcinoma.

12
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What are the histological changes in the duodenum between a healthy patient and one with coeliac disease?

In health, there are long villi; in coeliac disease, there is villous atrophy and hyperplasia of crypts.

13
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What is an oral relevance of Crohn's disease?

Patients may experience oral aphthous ulceration.

14
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Define an aphthous ulcer.

A recurrent round or oval sore inside the mouth.

15
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What is ulcerative colitis?

Chronic inflammatory disease causing continuous ulceration of the colonic mucosa.

16
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Which layers of the bowel does ulcerative colitis affect?

Only affects the mucosa.

17
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What is diverticular disease?

A condition causing small sacs (diverticula) to form in the large intestine.

18
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What is familial adenomatous polyposis?

An autosomal dominant mutation causing thousands of polyps after puberty.

19
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What is hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer?

An autosomal dominant genetic condition associated with a high risk of colon cancer.

20
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What questions should be asked during history taking for a patient presenting with dysphagia?

Duration, solids/liquids/both, odynophagia, weight loss, previous medical history, medication list, social history.

21
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What is dysarthria?

A motor speech disorder due to damaged or weakened muscles used for speech.

22
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Give examples of oesophageal problems that cause dysphagia.

Benign peptic stricture, oesophageal web, candidal oesophagitis, carcinoma, oesophageal spasm, achalasia.

23
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What is achalasia?

A failure of smooth muscle fibers to relax, causing the lower oesophageal sphincter to remain closed.

24
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What is the management of GORD?

Proton pump inhibitors, H2 antagonists, lifestyle advice, surgery.

25
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How may hiatus hernias cause GORD?

By causing loss of pressure gradient between abdominal and thoracic cavities.

26
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What are the types of hiatus hernia?

Normal, pre-stage, sliding hiatal hernia, paraoesophageal.

27
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What is paraoesophageal hernia?

Upward movement of the gastric fundus alongside normally positioned gastro-oesophageal junction.

28
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What is a sliding hiatal hernia?

Upward movement of the gastro-oesophageal junction through the diaphragmatic hiatus.

29
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What are the causes of indigestion and upper abdominal discomfort?

Peptic ulceration, gastric carcinomas, non-ulcer dyspepsia, pancreatic carcinoma, pancreatitis.

30
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What are common findings in a patient's history with peptic ulceration?

Epigastric pain, pain worsened by foods, weight loss, vomiting, H. pylori infection, NSAID use.

31
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What is a common diagnosis for a patient presenting with epigastric pain that improves by eating?

Duodenal ulcers.

32
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What is the management of peptic ulcers?

Test for H. pylori, suppression therapy, endoscopic treatment for bleeding, rare surgical intervention.

33
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What are the symptoms of gastric carcinoma?

Epigastric pain, weight loss, vomiting.

34
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How are gastric carcinomas diagnosed?

OGD gastroscopy followed by further testing for staging and grading.

35
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What are the symptoms of pancreatic cancer?

Unremitting pain, jaundice, associated with risk factors such as age, smoking, diabetes.

36
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What is the treatment of pancreatic carcinoma?

Surgical resection with poor prognosis; adjunct chemotherapy may be needed.

37
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What are the symptoms of non-ulcer dyspepsia?

Upper abdominal discomfort, nausea, eructation, bloating, motility disturbance.

38
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What is the management of chronic pancreatitis?

Long term opioids and counselling on alcohol.

39
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Define chronic abdominal pain.

Abdominal pain lasting more than 6 weeks.

40
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List three pancreatic diseases that can cause chronic diarrhea.

Pancreatic insufficiency, pancreatic carcinoma, cystic fibrosis.

41
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What will wireless capsule endoscopy show in a patient with coeliac disease?

Scalloping.

42
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What is dermatitis herpetiformis?

Intensely itchy blisters commonly found on the back, knees, elbows, suggestive of coeliac disease.

43
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What features of diarrhea suggest small bowel and pancreatic problems?

Pale, floating, difficult to flush, occurs throughout the day.

44
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What is the treatment of ulcerative colitis?

Aminosalicylates, steroids for short term, long term treatments include thiopurines.

45
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In which age groups should methotrexate be avoided?

Anyone of childbearing age.

46
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List commonly associated ophthalmology diseases with inflammatory bowel diseases.

Episcleritis and uveitis.

47
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List commonly associated liver diseases with inflammatory bowel diseases.

Cirrhosis, CAH, pericholangitis.

48
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What are the causes of post hepatic jaundice?

Gallstones, malignancy, benign biliary stricture.

49
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What are the causes of hepatic jaundice?

Infections, alcoholic hepatitis, drugs, decompensated chronic liver disease.

50
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What are the causes of pre hepatic jaundice?

Haemolytic anaemia with isolated raised bilirubin.

51
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Define gastroenteritis.

Syndrome characterized by GI symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain.

52
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Define dysentery.

Abnormal inflammation of the GI tract resulting in blood and pus in feces.

53
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Dysentery is a result of?

Diseases of the large intestine.

54
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Define enterocolitis.

Inflammation of the mucosa of small and large intestine.

55
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How does Bacillus cereus cause fried rice syndrome?

Spores survive cooking; if left at room temperature, they can germinate and release heat-stable toxins.

56
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What is the relevance of H. pylori producing urease?

Urease neutralizes stomach acid, creating a shield around H. pylori.

57
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What strain of H. pylori is linked to gastric ulcers?

CagA strain is thought to be involved in cancer development.

58
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What is ID50?

Infectious dose for 50% of the test population.

59
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What does lysogenic phage mean?

Viruses that infect bacteria and integrate into their chromosome.

60
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How is E. coli microbiologically detected?

Using MacConkey agar plates or Hektoen enteric agar.

61
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How does enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC) infect cells?

Through bundle-forming pili and a Type III secretion system.

62
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How does EIEC cause disease?

By invading and destroying epithelial cells, leading to blood in diarrhea.

63
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How does EHEC cause diarrhea?

Attaches to cells via pedestals and produces a potent toxin.

64
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What is haemorrhagic colitis?

Gastroenteritis caused by EHEC leading to bloody diarrhea and potential kidney involvement.

65
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What infections can Shigella dysenteriae cause?

Bacillary dysentery with blood in stool.

66
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What is the appearance of Shigella on MacConkey agar?

Dark green colonies as it is a non-lactose fermenting organism.

67
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How does Salmonella cause disease?

By invading macrophages and spreading to surrounding epithelium.

68
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What can you do to prevent typhoid fever?

Vi antigen vaccine is recommended for travel.

69
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What is Campylobacter spp.?

Gram negative micro-aerophile.

70
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What is the most important serotype of Vibrio cholerae?

O1 serotype.

71
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What is rotavirus?

Pathogen causing serious fever, diarrhea, and vomiting; very contagious.

72
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What is winter vomiting virus?

Norovirus causing chills, headaches, fever, nausea.