Pharmacology Final (new info)

____ - a foodstuff that is held to provide health or medical benefits in additions to its basic mutrition value

Nutraceutical

T or F: Nutraceuticals are not approved by the FDA as drugs and do not have to prove efficacy in order to market the product.

True

What kind of claim can nutraceuticals not make?

therapeutic

____ is a naturally occuring compound that is found in almost every tissue and fluid in the body. It plays a role in the immune system, maintains cell membranes, and helps produce and break down brain chemicals, such as serotonin, melatonin, and dopamine.

SAMe

____ is a supplment known to be very effective in cases of canine liver disease.

milk thistle

What supplement might help reduce the effects of copper toxicity

Zinc

What supplement is one of the top recommendations for liver disease because it removes free radicals

Antioxidant vitamin E

What supplement is used to help with the metabolic stress of the liver?

L-carnitine

What supplement plays a major role in treating skin and hair disorders?

Omega-3 fatty acids (EPA and DHA)

____ - a harmless bacterium that helps to protect the body from harmful bacteria; reestablish normal intestinal microflora. Contains a source of live naturally occurring microorganisms.

probiotics

What supplement helps with heart disease?

fish oil (Coenzyme Q10 and Omega 3 fish oil)

Which supplements help with brain health?

• SAMe

• Silybin

• antioxidants

What is oxidative balance?

describes the normal amount of free radicals and levels of oxidation in an animal’s system

What supplements are used to help with oxidative balance?

• superoxide dismutase

• vitamins A, D, E, K

• Biotin

• Beta-carotene

Which supplement helps with urinary tract health?

cranberry extract

How do we recognize the Benzimidazole drug category?

the -azole ending

Oxibendazole is known for causing what toxicity in dogs?

liver

Medendazole is known for causing what kind of toxicity issues?

liver

Fenbendazole is a wide-spectrum Benzimidazole (antinematodal) that must be given for ___ consecutive days

3

____ is a probenzimidazole that is metabolized in the animal into a true benzimidazole

Febantel

Fenbendazole is only effective against ____ species.

Taenia

What parasites are Imidazothiazoles effective against?

• Ascarids

• Strongyles

• Whipworms

• Hookworms

What parasites are Tetrahydropyrimidines effective against?

• Ascarids

• Pinworms

• Strongyles

• Hookworms

____ effective parasites by inhibiting cholinesterase activity, causing ACh to remain active in the neuromuscular junction of the parastie. They are neurotoxic to parasites.

Organophosphates

T or F: Organophosphates have a wide range of safety and should be used in dogs with heartworms.

False

What parasites are organophosphates effective against?

bots and variety of nematodes

This antinematodal works by blocking the neuromuscular transmission in the parasite.

Piperazine

Piperazine is only effective against what parasites?

ascarids

____ binds to certain chloride channels in the parasite nerve and muscle cells, causing paralysis and death of the parasite

Avermectins

T or F: Avermectins can be used for heartworm prevention.

True

Avermectins are not effective against what?

Cestodes or Trematodes

____ are antiparasitic agents that stimulate presynaptic receptors which cause paralysis and death of the parasite

Depsipeptides

____ is a combination product used topically in cats for treatent and control of hookworms, roundworms, and tape worms.

Profender

Benzimidazoles, Imidazothiazoles, Tetrahydropyrimidines, Organophosphates, Piperazine, Avermectins, and Depsipeptides all fall under what category of drugs?

Antinematodal

____ works by increasing the cestode’s cell membrane permeability (this disintegrates the worm’s outer tissue covering)

Praziquantel

What parasites does Praziquantel work on?

all cestode species and lung trematodes

What parasites is Epsiprantel effective against?

Taenia and Dipylidium but not Echinococcus

____ works by inhibiting the trematode’s enzyme systems for energy production

Clorsulon

What parasites is Clorsulon effective against?

Fasciola hepatica

How does Sulfadimethoxine work as an anticoccidial?

reduces the number of oocysts shed, thus reducing the spread of disease

____ is an antiprotozoal that enters the protozoal cell and interfers with its ability to function and replicate.

Metronidazole

Blood protozoan Babesia sp. is transmitted by what?

ticks

One treatment for EPM is _____ which inhibits an enzyme that causes a folic acid used for metabolism in parasites to be inactive.

Pyrimethamine

Heartworm disease is caused by the filarial nematode _____

Dirofilaria immitis

What is an example of an adulticide therapy heartworm treatment drug that is given in the epaxial muscles?

Melarsomine

What are the side effects of Melarsomine?

nephrotoxicity and hepatotoxicity

Ectoparasites can be controlled using a variety of different drugs in a variety of different formulations. What are a few of them?

• sprays

• dips

• oral products

• spot-ons

Topical anesthetics such as ____ and ____ are used to help perform comprehensive eye exams or to remove foreign material from the eye

Proparacaine and tetracaine

____ is applied to the cornea to assess any corneal defects (the stain is oragne until it adheres to the corneal defects, where it appears green)

Fluorescein

Miotics do what?

constrict the pupil (used to treat open-angle glaucoma)

Mydriatics and cycloplegics do what?

dilate the pupil

____ is a disease in which tear production is decreased, resulting in mucopurulent conjunctivitis and corneal scarring/ulceration

Keratoconjunctivitis Sicca (KCS)

What are some ways we can treat KCS?

• artificial tears

• antibiotic-steroid preparations

• lacrimogenics

• immunomodulators

What is one option we use as a soothing agent to treat pruritus?

oatmeal

____ is characterized by abnormal flaking or scaling of the epidermis.

Seborrhea

_____ is known as abnormal flaking of the skin with increased oil production

seborrhea oleasa

_____ is known as abnormal flaking of the skin without an increase in oil production

seborrhea sicca

____ are an important group of antiseborrheics. They remove excess keratin and promote loosening of the outer layer of the epidermis. They also break down the protein structure of the keratin layer, permitting easier removal of this material.

Keratolytics

____ are agents that constrict tissues. They cause shrinkage of mucous membranes or exposed tissues and are often used internally to check the discharge of blood serum or mucous secretions.

Astringents

____ are substances that kill or inhibit the growth of microbes on living tissue.

Antiseptics

____ are substances that destroy tissue

Caustics

____ are substances that produce irritation and inflammation in areas of chronic inflammation

Counterirritants

____ is only effective on dermatophytes and impairs fungals cell wall and weakens its replication ability.

Griseofulvin

What is the most serious side-effect of Griseofulvin?

Bone marrow suppression

Who is more prone to bone marrow suppression from the use of Griseofulvin?

Cats, FeLV or FIV infections may increase the likelihood of this severe side-effect

Griseofulvin is a teratogen, which means it should not be used during ____

pregnancy

Griseofulvin should not be administered to what animals?

food-producing animals

If a patient can not tolerate griseofulvin, ____ can be used as an alternative treatment

azoles

___ is an alternative in dogs and cats with either Malassezia or dermatophytosis when they cannot tolerate the azoles

Terbinafine

Fluorocytosine is used to treat systemic mycoses, what are some side effects?

• bone marrow suppression

• GI side-effects

Amphotericin B is used to treat systemic mycoses, what is the major side effect?

nephrotoxicity

It is important to constantly measure what when administering amphotericin B?

Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR) - the function of the kidneys

T or F: Ketoconazole and Itraconazole are both useful for systemic candida infections and should be given with food to avoid stomach acid suppression.

True

What special diet consideration do we need to make when giving Voriconazole?

Fatty diets may decrease absorption

What agent do we use to treat “woody tongue” bacteria in cattle?

sodium iodide

What is the goal of antimicrobial therapy?

kill or disable pathogens without killing the host

____ most drugs in the class will have endings with -micin or -mycin.

Aminoglycosides

Are aminoglycosides bacterial drugs or viral drugs?

bacterial

T or F: Aminoglycosides are effective against oxygen-dependent bacteria but are ineffective against most anaerobic bacteria.

True

Due to toxicity, Aminoglycosides are reserved for what kind of infections?

serious gram-negative or resistant Staph infections

What species are the following Aminoglycosides approved for?

• Gentamicin

• Amikacin

• Tobramycin

• Gentamicin = dogs and cats

• Amikacin = horses

• Tobramycin = humans

T or F: Aminoglycosides are not absorbed well orally.

True

What are the three main toxicities of Aminoglycosides?

• Nephrotoxicity

• Ototoxicity

• Neuromuscular blockade (respiratory arrest)

What drug is the only member of the Aminocyclitols class?

Spectinomycin

What animals are aminocyclitols primarily used in?

food animals

Which drug class can be identified by the -floxacin ending?

Fluoroquinolones

Are Fluoroquinolones bacterial or viral drugs?

bacterial

Enrofloxacin is high doses IV can cause what?

seizures

Pradofloxacin can cause ____ in dogs

bone marrow suppression

What are some other adverse reactions of fluoroquinolone?

Arthropathy and blindness

Which drug class is identified by its -cycline ending?

Tetracyclines

What kind of drug are tetracyclines?

bacteriostatic

Tetracyclines are the most commonly used drugs for ____ diseases.

rickettsial

What is the primary injectable tetracycline in veterinary medicine?

Oxytetracycline

____ is used when tetracycline is needed in renal failure patients.

Doxycycline

In what species should we use Doxycycline with caution? Why?

Use with caution in cats due to delayed esophageal transit and risk of esophageal ulceration

What are some adverse effects of tetracyclines?

• Potential teratogen in 1st trimester

• Staining of the teeth

• Hepatotoxicity

• Photosensitivity

• Nausea

• GI upset

Expired tetracyclines can be what?

nephrotoxic

What kind of drug are sulfonamides?

bacteriostatic

Sulfonamides are good for what kind of infection?

UTIs