MTLBE RA 9288

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Last updated 6:56 PM on 6/9/26
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30 Terms

1
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B

What is the official title of Republic Act No. 9288?

  • a. Expanded Newborn Screening Act of 2014

  • b. Newborn Screening Act of 2004

  • c. Universal Child Health and Survival Act

  • d. National Expanded Newborn Care Act

2
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A

When was Republic Act No. 9288 officially approved?

  • a. April 7, 2004

  • b. November 19, 2014

  • c. November 5, 2018

  • d. October 27, 2020

3
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C

Which Administrative Order expanded the screening panel from 6 to 28 disorders but kept the shift to expanded newborn screening "optional" for health facilities?

  • a. AO 2020-0052

  • b. AO 2018-0025

  • c. AO 2014-0045

  • d. RA 9288

4
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B

What major policy change was introduced by AO 2018-0025 regarding Expanded Newborn Screening (ENBS)?

  • a. It established the Newborn Screening Continuity Clinics.

  • b. It mandated the "full shift" requiring all facilities to provide the 28-panel ENBS.

  • c. It established the Centers for Human Genetic Services (CHGS).

  • d. It set the strict penalties for overpricing screening fees.

5
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C

Which recent Administrative Order established the Centers for Human Genetic Services (CHGS) in Luzon, Visayas, and Mindanao to facilitate comprehensive clinical evaluation and management?

  • a. AO 2014-0045

  • b. AO 2018-0025

  • c. AO 2020-0052

  • d. AO 2008-0026

6
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B

Under AO 2014-0045, what is the penalty for a health facility’s second offense of overpricing newborn screening fees?

  • a. A strict warning

  • b. Php 50,000 fine

  • c. Php 100,000 fine

  • d. Revocation of the facility's license

7
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D

Which agency is designated as the lead agency in the implementation of the comprehensive newborn screening system under RA 9288?

  • a. Philippine Health Insurance Corporation (PhilHealth)

  • b. Newborn Screening Reference Center (NSRC)

  • c. University of the Philippines National Institute of Health (UP-NIH)

  • d. Department of Health (DOH)

8
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D

Which institution serves as the National Reference Laboratory that performs confirmatory testing for the newborn screening program in the Philippines?

  • a. Department of Health (DOH)

  • b. World Health Organization (WHO)

  • c. Research Institute for Tropical Medicine (RITM)

  • d. University of the Philippines National Institute of Health (UP-NIH)

9
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C

What is the standard biological sample collected for the newborn screening procedure?

  • a. Venous blood from the antecubital fossa

  • b. Arterial blood from the wrist

  • c. Capillary blood blotted on absorbent paper from the heel

  • d. Umbilical cord blood

10
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A

According to the standard guidelines, what is the ideal time frame to perform newborn screening on a healthy baby?

  • a. After 24 hours from birth up to 3 days

  • b. immediately within the first 12 hours of life

  • c. After 7 days from birth

  • d. Between 7 to 14 days of life

11
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A

If a newborn is admitted to the Neonatal Intensive Care Unit (NICU), until when is the infant exempted from the standard 3-day requirement for testing?

  • a. Up to 7 days of age

  • b. Up to 14 days of age

  • c. Up to 21 days of age

  • d. Up to 28 days of age

12
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C

What is the only valid ground for a parent or legal guardian to refuse newborn screening for their child?

  • a. Financial constraints

  • b. Fear of the blood collection procedure

  • c. Religious beliefs

  • d. Preference for a private pediatrician's assessment

13
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D

What terminology refers to the procedure of locating a newborn with a possible heritable condition to provide confirmatory testing and prompt treatment?

  • a. Tracking

  • b. Referral

  • c. Registry

  • d. Recall

14
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B

How many members compose the Advisory Committee on Newborn Screening?

  • a. 6

  • b. 8

  • c. 10

  • d. 12

15
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B

Who acts as the Vice Chairperson of the Advisory Committee on Newborn Screening?

  • a. Secretary of Health

  • b. Executive Director of the UP-NIH

  • c. Director of the Newborn Screening Reference Center

  • d. Undersecretary of the DILG

16
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C

What terminology refers to an acute episode of illness caused by the accumulation of toxic metabolites in the body due to a missing or defective enzyme?

  • a. Chronic exacerbation

  • b. Hemolytic crisis

  • c. Acute crisis

  • d. Anaphylactic shock

17
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B

Glucose-6-Phosphate Dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency is a genetic disorder that predominantly affects:

  • a. Females

  • b. Males

  • c. Both sexes equally

  • d. Premature infants exclusively

18
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A

What is the primary complication that occurs in individuals with G6PD deficiency when exposed to oxidative triggers like certain medicines, fava beans, or infections?

  • a. Hemolysis leading to hemolytic crisis/anemia

  • b. Severe dehydration

  • c. Brain damage

  • d. Mental retardation

19
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B

Galactosemia is an autosomal recessive disorder caused by the deficiency of GALT. What does GALT stand for?

  • a. Glucose-6-phosphate uridyl transferase

  • b. Galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase

  • c. Glycogen-1-phosphate uridyl transferase

  • d. Glucagon-associated lactose transferase

20
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B

A baby with galactosemia will start manifesting life-threatening symptoms, such as brain damage and liver enlargement, as early as the first week of life if exposed to:

  • a. Soy-based formulas

  • b. Milk or milk sugars (lactose)

  • c. High-protein foods

  • d. Fava beans

21
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C

Which of the following is NOT a classic presentation of untreated Galactosemia?

  • a. Cataracts

  • b. Jaundice

  • c. Ambiguous genitalia

  • d. Enlarged liver and kidney damage

22
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A

Phenylketonuria (PKU) is caused by the lack of phenylalanine hydroxylase. What is the normal function of this missing enzyme?

  • a. It converts phenylalanine into tyrosine.

  • b. It converts tyrosine into phenylalanine.

  • c. It breaks down galactose into glucose.

  • d. It synthesizes steroid 21-hydroxylase.

23
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D

A distinct clinical "must-know" sign of undiagnosed and untreated Phenylketonuria (PKU) found in a baby's sweat and urine is:

  • a. A sweet, maple syrup-like odor

  • b. A fruity, acetone-like odor

  • c. A cabbage-like odor

  • d. A musty odor

24
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B

Without early diagnosis and strict adherence to a special phenylalanine-restricted diet, PKU primarily leads to which devastating consequence?

  • a. Hemolytic anemia

  • b. Brain damage and mental retardation

  • c. Liver cirrhosis

  • d. Complete blindness

25
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C

Ninety percent (90%) of Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia (CAH) cases are caused by the lack of which specific enzyme?

  • a. 11-beta-hydroxylase

  • b. Galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase

  • c. Steroid 21-hydroxylase

  • d. Phenylalanine hydroxylase

26
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B

Female infants with untreated Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia (CAH) often present with which distinctive physical finding due to an increased production of androgens?

  • a. Protruding tongue

  • b. Ambiguous genitalia (pseudohermaphroditism)

  • c. Severe albinism

  • d. Microcephaly

27
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A

A key, potentially life-threatening symptom of untreated Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia (CAH) in babies is:

  • a. Vomiting leading to severe dehydration

  • b. Profound deafness

  • c. Severe jaundice and cataracts

  • d. Hemolytic crisis

28
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A

Which of the following is considered a classic "must-know" clinical hallmark of Congenital Hypothyroidism in infants?

  • a. Protruding tongue and hoarse voice

  • b. Hyperactivity and seizures

  • c. Microcephaly and albinism

  • d. Musty smelling urine

29
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B

If not promptly identified and treated within the first weeks of life, Congenital Hypothyroidism can result in which permanent complications?

  • a. Blindness and liver failure

  • b. Growth retardation, mental retardation, and deafness

  • c. Ambiguous genitalia

  • d. Hemolytic anemia

30
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D

Maple Syrup Urine Disease (MSUD) is a metabolic disorder that causes a distinct sweet smell in the urine. It is characterized by the body's inability to break down specific branched-chain amino acids. Which amino acids build up to toxic levels in MSUD?

  • a. Phenylalanine, tyrosine, and tryptophan

  • b. Serine, threonine, and methionine

  • c. Arginine, lysine, and histidine

  • d. Leucine, isoleucine, and valine