Exam 4 MCQ

What primarily determines the types of muscle fibers a person has?
a) Activity
b) Genetics
c) Diet
d) Hormones

Genetics

What is meant by reciprocal inhibition?
a) When two muscles work together to maximize strength
b) Prevents muscles from working against each other
c) Increasing the activity of opposing muscles to improve balance
d) Describes how reflexes override voluntary movements in all situations

Prevents muscles from working against each other

What is the function of a muscle spindle?
a) Storing energy for rapid movements
b) Monitoring blood flow within the muscle.
c) Monitors length of muscle and how fast muscles change in length.
d) Providing structural support to prevent muscles from tearing

Monitors length of muscle and how fast muscles change in length.

In the patellar tendon reflex arc, the patellar tendon will ______ when you hit it.
a) Bend
b) Stretch
c) Tear
d) Explode

Bend

If we want to dorsiflex, we have to inhibit the _______.
a) Motor neurons
b) Sensory neurons
c) Knee extensors
d) Plantar flexors

Plantar flexors

What does the stretch reflex help to maintain?
a) Cartilage regeneration
b) Equilibrium and posture
c) Joint lubrication
d) Good grades

Equilibrium and posture

Which of the following best describes the primary function of Golgi tendon organs (GTOs)?
a) Detect changes in muscle length and initiate -> stretch reflex
b) Detect changes in muscle tension and promote muscle relaxation
c) Detect joint position, prevent dislocation by promoting proprioception
d) Stimulate muscle contraction in response to increased load

Detect changes in muscle tension and promote muscle relaxation

• Cameron is on a hike attempting to summit on mount baker (true story btw), and a rock pierces through his shoe as he steps down, initiating his flexor withdrawal reflex, what is the series of events?
  (2pts)

• (ID sequence of neural events (pathway) +1pt., and explain which muscles are effected +0.5pt./ the importance of opposition activation +0.5pt OR explain the role and importance of interneurons +1pt

a. Nociceptors detect pain → sensory (afferent) neuron → spinal cord → interneurons → motor (efferent) neurons → flexor muscles contract → limb withdraws

b. Interneurons allow integration, activate flexors and inhibit extensors (reciprocal inhibition)

c. Flexors activated, extensors inhibited → allows withdrawal

d. Crossed extensor reflex → stabilizes body by extending opposite limb

When a muscle gets stretched it ________.
a) Relaxes
b) Contracts
c) Tears
d) Gets stronger

Contracts

Which of the following is not part of a muscle spindle?
a) Intrafusal muscle fibers
b) Afferent fibers
c) Efferent Fibers
d) Gamma motorneurons

Efferent Fibers

In the patellar tendon reflex arc the patellar tendon will bend causing the quadriceps to _______.
a) Stretch
b) Shorten
c) Explode
d) Twis

stretch

If we want to dorsiflex we must inhibit the __________.
a) Sensory neurons
b) Motor neurons
c) Knee extensors
d) Plantar Flexors

Plantar flexors

What is the term that refers to the prevention of muscles working against each other?
a) Reciprocal Facilitation
b) Reciprocal Inhibition
c) Dynamic Stabilization
d) Basketball

Reciprocal Inhibition

Which of the following receptors is primarily responsible for detecting change in muscle length and the
rate of that change?
a) Golgi tendon organs (GTO)
b) Muscle spindles
c) Ventral root ganglion
d) Interneurons

Muscle spindles

• Cameron is finally a doctor! He visits a patient in the ER complaining of numbness and tingling in their distal lower extremity. Bloodflow is ok, but their nuero might be cooked: so I decide to test it, initiating their Patellar Tendon Reflex, what is the series of events? (2pts)

• (ID sequence of neural events (pathway) +1pt., and explain which muscles are effected +0.5pt./ theimportance of reciprocal inhibition+0.5pt OR predict what would happen if the patient had damage to
  the afferent neuron, and explain +1pt

a. Tap → stretches quadriceps → muscle spindles activated → afferent neuron to spinal cord → direct synapse with motor neuron → efferent signal → quadriceps contract → leg extends

b. Hamstrings inhibited via interneurons → reciprocal inhibition

• Important for preventing muscles from working against each other allowing movement

c. Reflex diminished/absent → no signal reaches spinal cord → no motor response

What does the term ipsilateral mean?
a) Same side
b) Top and bottom
c) Away from the surface of the body
d) Pertaining to the front side of the body

Same side

The olfactory nerve is entirely sensory
a) True
b) Fals

True

Which nerve provides vision?
a) Olfactory nerve
b) Optic nerve
c) Trochlear nerve
d) Vestibulocochlear nerve

Optic nerve

Which cranial nerve is cranial nerve III?
a) Oculomotor nerve
b) Abducens nerve
c) Accessory nerve
d) Vagus nerve

Oculomotor nerve

Which cranial nerve is the biggest in terms of thickness and has three different divisions?
a) Optic nerve
b) Trochlear nerve
c) Trigeminal nerve
d) Facial nerve

Trigeminal nerve

The Glossopharyngeal nerve is primarily responsible for...
a) Enabling hearing and balance
b) Swallowing and salivation
c) Lateral eye movement
d) Facial expression

Swallowing and salivation

Cranial nerve XI is responsible for...
a) Facial expression
b) Lateral eye movement
c) Swallowing, head, neck, and shoulder movement
d) Providing sensation to the face and chewing muscles

Swallowing, head, neck, and shoulder movement

Which nerve gives us a sense of smell?
a) Optic nerve
b) Oculomotor nerve
c) Trochlear nerve
d) Olfactory nerve

Olfactory nerve

Which cranial nerve has 3 divisions?
a) Facial nerve
b) Vestibulocochlear nerve
c) Trigeminal nerve
d) Accessory nerve

Trigeminal nerve

Cranial nerve X is responsible for...
a) Swallowing, speech, regulation of viscera
b) Controlling shoulder and neck movement
c) Supplying facial expression
d) Controlling eye movement

Swallowing, speech, regulation of viscera

What is the largest brain area?
a) Cerebrum
b) Cerebellum
c) Medulla
d) Diencephalon

Cerebrum

Which of the following is not part of the brain stem
a) Pons
b) Medulla Oblongata
c) Metencephalon
d) Mid Brain

Metencephalon

Which of the following statements is True?
a) The longitudinal fissure separates the anterior and posterior regions of the brain.
b) Tracts are composed of cell somas and dendritic regions.
c) The term Cortex refers to the deepest part of an area in the brain.
d) Sulci are the creases/grooves that separate Gyri

Sulci are the creases/grooves that separate Gyri

How many ventricles are present in the human brain?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

4

What is the primary function of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
a.) To generate electrical impulses in neurons
b.) To cushion and protect the brain and spinal cord
c.) To produce hormones for the endocrine system
d.) To control voluntary muscle movement

To cushion and protect the brain and spinal cord

The Blood-brain barrier (BBB) is most permeable to which of the following molecules
a.) Large proteins and bacteria
b.) Lipid-soluble molecules
c.) Charges ions like Na+ and L+ without transport
d.) Toxins and pathogens

Lipid-soluble molecules

What is the correct order of the 3 components of the brain stem from Inferior to Superior?
a) Mid brain, Pons, Medulla Oblongata
b) Medulla Oblongata, Midbrain, Pons
c) Medulla Oblongata, Pons, Midbrain
d) Mid brain, Medulla Oblongata, Pons

Medulla Oblongata, Pons, Midbrain

Which of the following statements is False?
a) The longitudinal fissure separates the right and left hemisphere of the brain.
b) Gyri are the creases/grooves that separate the sulci.
c) Nuclei are collections of cell somas and dendritic regions.
d) Tracts serve as a conduit for communication between adjacent structures.

Gyri are the creases/grooves that separate the sulci.

If the blood-brain barrier is permeable to lipid soluble then which substance would require a transport
protein
a) Oxygen
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Glucose
d) Nicotine & Alcohol

Glucose

Which meningeal layer is most closely attached to the surface of the brain
a) Dura mater
b) Arachnoid mater
c) Pia mater
d) Epidural layer

Pia mater

Which ventricle is located between the thalamus
` a.) Lateral ventricle
b.) Third ventricle
c.) Fourth ventricle
d.) Central canal

Third ventricle

What structure is responsible for separating blood from cerebrospinal fluid (producing CSF)
a.) Arachnoid villi
b.) Dura Mater
c.) Choroid plexus
d.) Hypothalamus

Choroid plexus

Which of the following best describes the function of the ANS?
a) Controls conscious breathing.
b) Responsible for controlling voluntary movements like walking.
c) Regulates unconscious processes that maintain homeostasis.
d) Regulates sense of taste and smell

Regulates unconscious processes that maintain homeostasis.

In the ANS there are 2 nerve fibers.
a) True
b) False

True

Which of the following statements is False.
a) Norepinephrine is used only in the Somatic Nervous System
b) Acetylcholine is used in the Autonomic Nervous System.
c) In the ANS there is a pre and post synaptic nerve fiber.
d) In the ANS the nerve fiber is always myelinated

Norepinephrine is used only in the Somatic Nervous System

Which part of the ANS is responsible for the “flight ot fight” response?
a) Parasympathetic
b) Somatic
c) Sympathetic
d) Enteric

Sympathetic

Which neurotransmitter is primarily released by parasympathetic postganglionic neurons?
a) Dopamine
b) Norepinephrine
c) Acetylcholine
d) Serotonin

Acetylcholine

Activation of the parasympathetic nervous system will
a.) Increase HR
b.) Decrease HR
c.) Increase blood pressure
d.) Dilation of pupils

Decrease HR

Correctly identify the two main types of receptors involved in ANS signaling
a.) Nicotine and muscarinic
b.) Adrenergic and Cholinergic
c.) Alpha and Beta
d.) Somatic and Visceral

Adrenergic and Cholinergic

Name the two divisions of the ANS. Then explain the function of each one?

• Sympathetic Nervous System: E Division. Excitement, Enthusiasm, Energy, Exercise. High sense of awareness and high metabolic demand. Fight, Flight, or Freeze.

• Parasympathetic Nervous System: D Division. Digest, Diuresis, Defecation. Resting.

Which of the following is NOT something that would be regulated by the ANS?
a) Heart Rate
b) Conscious Breathing
c) Blood glucose levels
d) Blood Pressure

Conscious Breathing

Nerve fibers in the ANS are always myelinated.
a) True
b) False

False

Which of the following statements is True?
a) The parasympathetic division can work unless the sympathetic division is completely shut off.
b) The sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions work as a teeter totter. One will be more
prominent than the other.
c) The sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions work as a positive feedback loop.
d) The Sympathetic division is the “D division”

The sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions work as a teeter totter. One will be more
prominent than the other.

Sympathetic postganglionic neurons release which neurotransmitter:
a) Acetylcholine
b) Norepinephrine
c) Dopamine
d) Serotonin

Norepinephrine

Which of the following represents a sympathetic effect on the heart
a) Decreased HR
b) No change
c) Increased HR
d) Atrial fibrillation

Increased HR

Receptors that respond to acetylcholine are classified as:
a.) Adrenergic receptors
b.) Cholinergic receptors
c.) Alpha receptors
d.) Beta receptors

Cholinergic receptors

Correctly identify the pair: receptor type and primary neurotransmitter
a.) Adrenergic - Acetylcholine
b.) Cholinergic - Norepinephrine
c.) Adrenergic - Epinephrine/Norepinephrine
d.) Cholinergic - Dopamine

Adrenergic - Epinephrine/Norepinephrine

Name the 2 divisions of the ANS. Explain what happens in the body physiologically when each one is activated

• Sympathetic: Adrenaline is secreted (EPI). Fight or flight impulses are expressed through all tissues of the body.

• Mobilization of respiratory muscles, heart, CNS. Heightened sense of awareness. Processes such as urination, defecation, and reproduction are reduced/inhibited in order to dedicated resources to relevant tissues for fight or
  flight.

• Parasympathetic: Initiates second messenger systems which alter target cells without having an “on off
  mechanism”. Slows heart rate. Increases digestive functions

Which of the following lingual papillae is described as follows: mushroom shaped, concentrated on the
tip and lateral sides of the tongue...
a) Filiform
b) Foliate
c) Fungiform
d) Vallate

Fungiform

Which type of receptive field has more neurons, allowing for more fine touch discrimination?
a) Wide receptive fields
b) Small receptive fields
c) Medium receptive fields
d) Large receptor fields

Small receptive fields

Which structure helps dissolve chemicals in the air?
a) Supporting cells
b) Cribriform plate
c) Olfactory mucosa
d) Olfactory cells

Olfactory mucosa

hich of the following is NOT an origin of stimuli?
a) Interoceptors
b) Proprioceptors
c) Exteroceptors
d) Olfactory nerve

Olfactory nerve

What do proprioceptors detect
a) Stimuli coming from your inside/visceral organs
b) Pain from damaged tissues in your body
c) The position of joints and appendages
d) Stimuli from the outside, like a cold breezeWhat do proprioceptors detect

The position of joints and appendages

Which chemical is incorrectly matched with the taste it produces?
a) Sweet- carbonyl groups
b) Bitter - alkaloids
c) Sour - amino acids
d) Salty - metal ions

Bitter - alkaloids

What is the modality of olfaction?
a) Thermo-
b) Chemo-
c) Photo-
d) Mechano-

Chemo-

Explain physiologically why you can’t smell very well when you are sick (3 pts)

- Mucosal layer thickens
- Chemicals striking the layer are going to have to diffuse further
- Diffusional gradient is slower compromising smell

Which of the following lingual papillae is described as follows: present at the back of the tongue forming a V shape, having little circular papillae, usually 7-9
a) Filiform
b) Foliate
c) Fungiform
d) Vallate

d) Vallate

hich of the following is NOT a property of receptors?
a) Sensory transduction
b) Adaptation
c) Facial nerve
d) Receptor potential

Facial nerve

In terms of the physiology of smell, what do hydrophobic molecules bind to when arriving at the mucus
which allows them to become soluble?
a) Smell proteins
b) Olfactory proteins
c) Chemoreceptor proteins
d) Odorant-binding proteins

Odorant-binding proteins

A nociceptor is a receptor that detects:
a) Pain
b) Chemical stimuli
c) Heat changes
d) light/absence of light

Pain

Which chemical is correctly matched with the taste it produces
a) Sour - amino acids
b) Umami - alkaloids
c) Bitter - metal ions
d) Sweet - carbonyl groups

Sweet - carbonyl groups

What is the modality of gustation?
a) Thermo-
b) Mechano-
c) Chemo-
d) Photo-

Chemo-

Explain how filiform, fungiform, and foliate papillae are all different and what all three of them contribute to gustation individually

• Filiform help with getting the texture of food
  - Fungiform helps with more traditional taste.
  - Foliate papillae are along the sides of the tongue and are associated with infants to give them a greater
  perception.

What structure separates the middle ear from the inner ear?
a) Oval window
b) Tympanic membrane
c) Vestibule
d) Cochlea

Vestibule

What is the correct order of the ear ossicles from superficial to deep?
a) Stapes, Incus, Malleus
b) Malleus, Stapes, Incus
c) Stapes, Malleus, Incus
d) Malleus, Incus, Stapes

Malleus, Incus, Stapes

What is the function of the vestibule (saccule and utricle)?
a) Contain receptors for static and linear balance.
b) Prevent unwanted ringing in the ears.
c) Contains receptors for integrating vibrations.
d) Act as a barrier to prevent perilymph from entering the middle ear.

Contain receptors for static and linear balance

Static equilibrium is responsible for detecting:
a) Rotational movement of the head
b) Sound vibrations
c) Head orientation
d) Pressure changes in the Eustachian canal

Head orientation

The macula utriculi detect:
a) Rotational movement
b) Up to down movement
c) Side to side, forward to backwards movement
d) Going underwater

Side to side, forward to backwards movement

What statement about the crista ampullaris is true
a.) Detection of static equilibrium
b.) It holds otoliths in its jelly-fluid
c.) It helps detect dynamic equilibrium
d.) It is located in the cochlea

It helps detect dynamic equilibrium

How does the macula detect changes in head position and acceleration
a.) Sound waves vibrate the basilar membrane
b.) Movement of otoliths bends hair cell stereocilla -> generating nerve signals
c.) Endolymph pushed against the cupula
d.) Pressure changes stimulate the tympanic membrane

Movement of otoliths bends hair cell stereocilla -> generating nerve signals

Explain the significance of inner hair cells and how they help us to hear. Talk about what happens to the true stereocilia when the tectorial membrane starts to vibrate and the chain reaction that occurs in order for us to be able to perceive sound. (3pts).

True stereocilia are associated with the perception of hearing. True stereocilia bend. Bending opens mechanically gated channels that initiate localized depolarizations that result in secretory vesicle release at the base lateral membrane eliciting action potentials in the nerve roots

What structure separates the outer ear from the inner ear?
a) Cochlea
b) Vestibule
c) Tympanic membrane
d) Oval window

Tympanic membrane

What is the function of Stapedius and Tensor Tympani?
a) Decrease/dampen ossicular vibrations.
b) Change the shape of the cochlea when sound is too loud.
c) Provide structure and support for the ear ossicles.
d) Open the auditory canal in order for fluid to pass in and out.

Decrease/dampen ossicular vibrations.

What is the difference between outer and inner hair cells?
a) Inner hair cells are detecting vibrations and outer hair cells carry out motor reflexes to modify
sounds.
b) Inner hair cells dampen vibrations while outset hair cells enhance vibrations.
c) Inner hair cells work to protect the ear from loud vibrations while outer hair cells dampen
vibrations.
d) Inner hair cells modify sound while outer hair cells help to direct sound through the ear.

Inner hair cells are detecting vibrations and outer hair cells carry out motor reflexes to modify

Dynamic equilibrium is responsible for detecting:
a) Head orientation
b) Balancing on a beam
c) Perceiving motion and acceleration
d) Sound vibrations

Perceiving motion and acceleration

The macula sacculi detects:
a) Up to down movements
b) Side-to-side movement
c) Forward and backward movement
d) Rotational movement

Up to down movements

Crista Ampullaris is useful for:
a.) Head position relative to gravity
b.) Rotational acceleration of the head
c.) Linear acceleration
d.) Vibrational acceleration

Rotational acceleration of the head

When a person tilts their head to one side, the macula responds due to:
a.) Endolymph flowing through cochlea
b.) Otoliths shift due to gravity and bend stereocillia
c.) Vibration of the round window -> transmitting waves -> waves push head back
d.) Auditory ossicles amplify movement creating resistanc

Otoliths shift due to gravity and bend stereocillia

Explain the two functions of the Auditory/Eustachian Tube. Then explain how this structure is different in infants vs. adults.

+1 for function: Equalizing air pressure between the middle ear and external environment
+1 for function: draining secretion from middle ear -> nasopharnyx
+1 for comparison: adults -> longer, narrow, improve drainage. Children -> shorter, wider -> increase ear
infection

What is peripheral vision and on which part(s) of the retina are the light rays from the object in Samantha’s peripheral vision landing?

• Peripheral vision: side vision. Everything around what the eyes are focusing on.

• Light rays land on areas of the retina outside the macula lutea.

What maintains intraocular pressure, to keep the shape of the eye, and provides nutrients to the eye
tissues?
a. Cornea
b. Aqueous humor
c. Optic Disk
d. Vitreous Humor

Aqueous humor

hat does having 20/15 vision mean?

you can see at 20 feet what the average person can only see clearly at 15 feet.

Why does the optic disk create a blind spot?

It has no photoreceptors

hat area of the eye is the arrow pointing to and what is inside of it?

Posterior Chamber with vitreous humor inside

Why is intraocular pressure important?
a) It keeps the eye in a spherical shape
b) It moves the eyelids
c) It produces light signals
d) I controls night vision

It keeps the eye in a spherical shape

Explain why distance vision is blurry in myopia?

• The focal point is in front of the retina. Meaning, the light has converged in front of the retina.

• So when it hits the retina, it is already diverging and the photoreceptors can’t get a clear image

Explain how glaucoma develops, including what causes the increase in intraocular pressure, the normal role of aqueous humor in the eye, and how this increased pressure affects vision.

• Caused by build up of aqueous humor, increasing the pressure in the eye

• Aqueous humor maintains intraocular pressure & provides nutrients to the eye

• Increased pressure damages the optic nerve causing loss of peripheral vision first

What is central vision and where is Samantha’s central vision focused during the vision test?

• Central vision: what our eyes are focused on when we look straight ahead (covers about 3 degrees of our visual field) Samantha’s central vision is focused on the light.

What structure in the eye is responsible for the physiological blind spot?

• Optic Disk

What does it mean to have 20/500 vision

your distance vision is very poor.

What area of the eye is the arrow pointing to and what is
inside of it?

Anterior Chamber holds aqueous humor

What type of vision is affected first with glaucoma?

• Peripheral vision