FIN 4324 - Midterm MCQ

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Last updated 12:32 AM on 6/1/26
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254 Terms

1
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True/False: A bank can be defined as the economic functions it preforms, the services it offers its customers, or the legal basis for its existence.

True

2
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True/False: Congress defined a bank as any institution that might qualify as a investment bank.

False

3
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Which of the following best describes a money centered bank?

A large institution, offering a wide possible of financial services.

4
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Saving deposits many focuses on.

Interest bearing funds with financial institutions

5
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True/False: State banking commissions are the primary regulators of American banks at the state level.

True

6
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The Federal Reserve Act (1913) many focus was to implement the Office of Comptroller of the Currency.

False

7
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Which act first implemented the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation?

The Banking Glass-Stegall Act

8
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The Riegle-Neal Interstate Banking and Branching Efficiency Act mainly focused on what?

Allowed banks to freely branch across state lines

9
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True/False: A bank holding company is a corporation that owns and controls one or more banks and is subject to regulation by the Federal Reserve Board

True

10
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Unit banking laws require banks to operate across multiple states and branch locations to remain federally charted

False

11
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Which of the following best describes a bank holding company?

A corporation that owns one or more banks and can engage in nonbanking activities

12
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The McFadden Act of 1927 was significant in U.S. banking history because it:

Restricted national banks from branching across state lines, keeping them competitive with state banks

13
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True/False: A bank must receive approval from both its chartering authority and the FDIC before it can legally accept deposits from the public

True

14
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True/False: The FDIC plays no role in the approval process for establishing a new federally insured bank

False

15
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Which of the following best describes the purpose of a bank branch compared to a full-service bank?

A branch is an extension of a parent bank that offers banking services without being a separately chartered institution

16
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Which of the following is NOT typically a factor regulator to consider when approving a new bank charter?

The personal political affiliations of the bank's founders

17
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The two most important financial statements for a banking firm are its Balance Sheet and its income and expense statement

True

18
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A balance sheet, or Report of Condition, lists the assets, liabilities, and equity capital (owners’ funds) held by or invested in a bank or other financial firm on any given date.

True

19
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What is the first asset item normally listed on a banking firm’s Report of Condition

Cash and Due from Depository Institutions

20
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Which asset item is by far the largest on a banking firm’s Report of Condition, often accounting for half to nearly three-quarters of the total value of all bank assets?

Loans and Leases

21
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Credit risk is the primary risk faced by commercial banks, accounting for the largest portion of potential losses in the banking system.

True

22
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Under Peter Rose's framework, the loan approval process is less important than the initial credit analysis phase in managing credit risk.

False

23
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Which of the following is NOT typically considered a key component of comprehensive lending policies?

Deposit interest rate setting strategies

24
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In Rose's framework, the primary purpose of establishing loan covenants is to:

Protect the bank's interest by restricting borrower behavior and maintaining financial condition

25
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Which of the following best describes how Basel III has enhanced credit risk management standards for banks?

Basel III introduced more rigorous capital requirements, stress testing, and counterparty credit risk management

26
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Interest-sensitive gap management is used to help financial institutions reduce exposure to interest rate risk.

True

27
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Duration gap management completely eliminates all interest rate risk for financial institutions.

False

28
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Which of the following is a goal of interest rate hedging?

Protect the net interest margin

29
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What does an upward-sloping yield curve indicate?

Long-term rates are higher than short-term rates

30
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Financial futures contracts are agreements to buy or sell securities at a preset price on a future date.

True

31
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A call option gives the holder the right to sell securities at a specified price.

False

32
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Which derivative tool is most commonly used by banks to hedge interest rate risk?

Swaps

33
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What is the purpose of an initial margin in futures trading?

To guarantee performance of the contract

34
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Credit default swaps are designed to reduce credit risk exposure.

True

35
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Standby letters of credit require immediate cash payment by the issuing bank.

False

36
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Which credit derivative acts similarly to insurance against default?

Credit default swap (CDS)

37
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What is the main purpose of securitization?

Convert illiquid assets into marketable securities

38
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Investment securities help financial institutions stabilize income during periods when loan revenues decline.

True

39
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Treasury bills usually mature in more than ten years

False

40
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Which of the following is considered one of the safest money market instruments?

Treasury bills

41
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Which investment instrument is backed by pools of loans such as home mortgages?

Securitized assets

42
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Money-Center banks are not personalized as much as Community banks.

True

43
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Financial systems main purpose is to discourage savings and investment.

False

44
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Choose the institutions that are insures deposits in the U.S.

FDIC

45
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Choose the banks that serves to local communities and small towns.

Community Bank

46
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Investment banking and commercial banking is separated by The Glass-Steagall Act.

True

47
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(FOMC) The Federal Open Market Committee provides deposit insurance to bank customers.

False

48
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What are the laws that allows banking companies to affiliates with securities firms under common ownership

Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act

49
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The organizations that conducts open market operations in the U.S

Federal Reserve

50
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Unit banks provide all of their services from one main office location.

True

51
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Branch banking organizations usually operate without a home office.

False

52
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Which type of bank usually offers services from only one office location?

Unit bank

53
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Which law helped expand interstate banking and branching in the United States?

Riegle-Neal Interstate Banking and Branching Efficiency Act of 1994

54
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New banks usually become profitable within the first 2–3 years of operation.

True

55
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ATMs increase bank operating costs because they require more employees.

False

56
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Who issues national bank charters in the United States?

Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (OCC)

57
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Which of the following is considered a branchless banking service?

Automated Teller Machine (ATM)

58
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Which of the following is considered the major asset category for most banks?

Loans and leasing financings

59
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Net Interest Income is calculated as:

Interest Income – Interest Expenses

60
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Equity capital provides a long-term and relatively stable source of financial support for a bank

True

61
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Off balance sheet items reduce a bank’s exposure to risk completely

False

62
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What is the basic formula used to find a banks return on assets (ROA)?

Net Income/Total assets

63
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What is the most basic definition of a bank's “assets?”

What the bank owns like loans and cash

64
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Net income is the money a bank has left over after paying all its expenses

True

65
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If a bank has more expenses than revenues, it will make profit

False

66
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Asset liability Management (ALM) is used to mainly control risk from changes in

Market interest rates

67
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A bank has a negative “gap when its interest-sensitive liabilities are

Greater than its interest sensitive assets

68
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A bank has a positive gap when its sensitive assets are exactly equal to its sensitive liabilities

False

69
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If a bank has $10 million in sensitive assets and $10 million in sensitive liabilities, its gap is $5 million.

False

70
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What is the main purpose of derivative contracts for financial institutions?

To protect against financial risks such as interest rate changes

71
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A buyer of futures contract is said to be

Long futures

72
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Interest-rate swaps allow financial institutions to convert from fixed interest rates to floating interest rates or vice versa

True

73
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A call option gives the holder the right to sell securities at a predetermined price

False

74
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Which of the following is the primary purpose of loan sales by banks?

Reduce liquidity and credit risk

75
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A credit derivative allows a bank to primarily:

Transfer credit risk to another party

76
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Asset-backed securities are created by pooling loans and converting them into marketable securities.

True

77
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Credit standbys guarantee that a borrower will never default.

False

78
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Investment securities help financial institutions provide liquidity, stabilize income, diversify risk, and reduce tax exposure

True

79
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Capital market instruments usually mature within one year and are known mainly for low risk and ready marketability.

False

80
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Which of the following is considered a money market investment instrument?

Treasury bills

81
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Which risk occurs when rising market interest rates cause the value of previously issued bonds to fall?

Interest rate risk

82
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 Bank can be defined only by the services it offers to customers.

False

83
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One major reason banks face stronger competition today is that many nonbank financial-service firms now offer similar services to the public.

True

84
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Which statement best explains why the definition of a bank has become harder to separate from other financial-service firms?

Financial-service providers are increasingly offering similar products and one-stop financial services

85
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A community bank is most likely different from a money-center bank because a community bank usually:

serves local communities with a more personalized range of services.

86
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Government regulation of banks exists partly because banks hold the public’s savings and can affect the money supply through lending.

True

87
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The Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act required commercial banks, investment banks, and insurance companies to remain completely separate from each other,

False

88
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Why did the creation of the FDIC become important to the banking system?

It helped protect depositors and restore public confidence in banks.

89
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Which action would most likely make it harder for banks to create new loans?

The central bank raises reserve requirements.

90
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Community banks are primarily focused on serving smaller, locally based markets

True

91
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The Riegle-Neal Interstate Banking and Branching Efficiency Act of 1994 restricted banks from opening branches across state lines.

False

92
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Which of the following best describes a unit bank?

A bank that offers services from one main office

93
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What contributed to the expansion of branch banking in the United States?

The Riegle-Neal Interstate Banking and Branching Efficiency Act of 1994

94
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In store branches are typically more expensive to operate than traditional stand alone branches

False

95
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Most countries require government approval before a new financial institution can be established.

True

96
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Which organization can issue a federal charter for a new U.S. bank?

Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (OCC)

97
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Which of the following is considered an advantage of a state bank charter?

Lower supervisory fees and easier approval process

98
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Loans are generally the largest asset category on a commercial bank balance sheet.

True

99
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Noninterest income only includes income earned from loans.

False

100
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The account built up by annual noncash expense deductions and subtracted from Gross Loans on the Balance Sheet (Report of Condition) is called:

Allowance for possible loan losses