bontrager ch 2chest test

Question: What is the internal ridge where the trachea divides into the right and left bronchi called?

A) Carina — Easy Explanation: The carina is the point where the trachea splits into the two main bronchi.

Question: The xiphoid process is a reliable landmark for locating the lower lung margins.

False — Easy Explanation: The xiphoid process is not a reliable landmark for lung positioning.

Question: The upper margin of the lungs is at the level of the:

B) Vertebra prominens — Easy Explanation: The lung apices extend to the level of C7 (vertebra prominens).

Question: Which structure is the most inferior?

C) Carina — Easy Explanation: The carina is located below the hyoid bone, epiglottis, and vocal cords.

Question: What structure acts as a lid over the larynx to prevent aspiration?

B) Epiglottis — Easy Explanation: The epiglottis closes during swallowing to keep food out of the airway.

Question: The vertebra prominens corresponds to which vertebra?

A) C7 — Easy Explanation: C7 is the most prominent cervical vertebra.

Question: Part iii refers to the:

C) Laryngeal prominence — Easy Explanation: The laryngeal prominence is the Adam's apple.

Question: Part iv refers to the:

C) Thyroid cartilage — Easy Explanation: The thyroid cartilage surrounds and protects the larynx.

Question: Which structure is NOT part of the mediastinum?

D) Epiglottis — Easy Explanation: The epiglottis is part of the upper airway, not the mediastinum.

Question: Part i refers to the:

D) Epiglottis — Easy Explanation: The epiglottis protects the airway during swallowing.

Question: The jugular notch is located on the:

A) Sternum — Easy Explanation: The jugular notch is found at the top of the sternum.

Question: What structure serves as a common passageway for both food and air?

C) Pharynx — Easy Explanation: The pharynx carries both food and air before they separate.

Question: Air or gas in the pleural cavity is called:

B) Pneumothorax — Easy Explanation: Pneumothorax occurs when air enters the pleural space.

Question: The laryngeal prominence is located at the level of:

C) C5 — Easy Explanation: The Adam's apple is found around C5.

Question: Part ii refers to the:

A) Hyoid bone — Easy Explanation: The hyoid bone supports the tongue and upper airway.

Question: What is the correct anatomical name for the Adam's apple?

D) Laryngeal prominence — Easy Explanation: Adam's apple is the common name for the laryngeal prominence.

Question: The inner pleural layer covering the lungs is called:

C) Pulmonary pleura — Easy Explanation: The pulmonary (visceral) pleura directly covers the lungs.

Question: The lower concave area of the lung is termed the:

A) Base — Easy Explanation: The lung base rests on the diaphragm.

Question: The two most common landmarks for chest positioning are the:

D) Jugular notch and vertebra prominens — Easy Explanation: These landmarks help determine chest centering.

Question: Which structure is most posterior?

B) Esophagus — Easy Explanation: The esophagus lies behind the trachea.

Question: The thymus gland reaches its maximum size at:

C) Puberty — Easy Explanation: The thymus enlarges until puberty, then gradually shrinks.

Question: Part v refers to the:

D) Cricoid cartilage — Easy Explanation: The cricoid cartilage sits below the thyroid cartilage.

Question: Which item does NOT need to be removed for chest radiography?

D) Glasses — Easy Explanation: Glasses are outside the chest area and usually do not interfere.

Question: The upper collimation border should be 2 inches above the vertebra prominens.

False — Easy Explanation: Proper chest collimation does not use this guideline.

Question: For an AP portable chest on an older or hypersthenic male, the CR should be centered:

B) 3 inches (8 cm) below the jugular notch — Easy Explanation: This helps include the entire lungs.

Question: Which condition often requires inspiration and expiration chest images?

B) Small pneumothorax — Easy Explanation: Expiration images make a pneumothorax easier to see.

Question: Grids should generally be used in chest radiography for techniques of:

B) 100 kV or greater — Easy Explanation: High-kV chest exams produce more scatter radiation.

Question: Electrocardiography and echocardiography are the same procedure.

False — Easy Explanation: ECG measures electrical activity, while echocardiography uses ultrasound.

Question: Which statement is NOT true?

B) The left bronchus is more horizontal than the right bronchus — Easy Explanation: The right bronchus is more vertical; the left is more horizontal.

Question: The thyroid gland is located approximately at:

D) C5–7 — Easy Explanation: The thyroid wraps around the trachea in the lower neck.

Question: The heart is located in the anterior chest at the level of:

D) T5–8 — Easy Explanation: Most of the heart lies between T5 and T8.

Question: Which body habitus often requires a crosswise IR for a PA chest?

A) Hypersthenic — Easy Explanation: Hypersthenic patients have wider, shorter chests.

Question: Asthenic body types make up approximately what percentage of the population?

D) 10 — Easy Explanation: Asthenic body types are relatively uncommon.

Question: What radiographic sign is commonly seen with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)?

D) Air bronchogram — Easy Explanation: Air bronchograms are a classic sign of RDS.

Question: Placing the top of the IR 3 inches above the shoulders is recommended for adult chest radiography.

False — Easy Explanation: This positioning method is not recommended.

Question: For an AP supine chest, the CR should be centered:

B) 3 to 4 inches (8 to 10 cm) below the jugular notch — Easy Explanation: This includes the entire lung field.

Question: Geriatric patients generally require higher CR centering than younger patients.

True — Easy Explanation: Older patients often have a lower diaphragm and elongated lungs.

Question: A well-inspired adult PA chest should show at least how many posterior ribs above the diaphragm?

C) 10 — Easy Explanation: Seeing 10 posterior ribs indicates adequate inspiration.

Question: Part vi refers to the:

A) Trachea — Easy Explanation: The trachea carries air from the larynx to the bronchi.

Question: Pleurisy may be demonstrated radiographically by associated:

A) Pleural effusion — Easy Explanation: Inflammation of the pleura often causes fluid buildup.

Question: What CR angle is required for the AP semiaxial projection of the lung apices?

C) 15° to 20° — Easy Explanation: This projects the clavicles above the apices.

Question: A patient with suspected pneumonia and midsternal chest pain should receive:

A) PA and left lateral projections — Easy Explanation: These are standard chest projections.

Question: Only seven ribs are visible above the diaphragm on a PA chest. How can inspiration be improved?

C) Take exposure on the second inspiration — Easy Explanation: A second deep breath expands the lungs more fully.

Question: A calcification is seen near a rib, but its location is uncertain. Which additional projection helps?

C) Inspiration/expiration PA — Easy Explanation: These views help determine if the lesion is in the lung.

Question: Which technique is ideal for adult chest radiography?

B) 120 kV, 800 mA, 1/40 sec, 72-inch SID — Easy Explanation: High kV and long SID reduce heart magnification and improve image quality.

Question: For an average-size female PA chest, the CR is placed:

A) 7 inches (18 cm) below the vertebra prominens — Easy Explanation: This centers the lungs properly.

Question: A patient with possible left pleural effusion cannot stand. Which position is best?

D) Left lateral decubitus — Easy Explanation: Fluid settles on the affected side and becomes visible.

Question: A trauma patient with possible left pneumothorax cannot stand. Which position is best?

B) Right lateral decubitus — Easy Explanation: Air rises and is easier to see in this position.

Question: The left SC joint is closer to the spine on a PA chest. What positioning error occurred?

B) Rotation into LAO — Easy Explanation: The patient was rotated toward the left.

Question: How can heart magnification be reduced on an AP supine chest?

D) Increase SID as much as possible — Easy Explanation: A longer SID reduces magnification.

```Question: Which factor is most crucial for demonstrating air-fluid levels in the chest?

C) Patient in erect or decubitus position — Easy Explanation: Air rises and fluid settles, making levels visible.

Question: Irreversible dilation or widening of bronchi or bronchioles is called:

C) Bronchiectasis — Easy Explanation: Bronchiectasis causes permanent widening of the airways.

Question: How can breast shadows be reduced on a PA chest radiograph?

A) Ask patient to lift breasts up and outward — Easy Explanation: This moves breast tissue away from the lung bases.

Question: A patient with a possible right hemothorax can sit erect. Which routine is best?

A) Erect PA and erect right lateral on cart — Easy Explanation: Fluid levels are best demonstrated erect.

Question: Which factor best minimizes heart distortion?

A) 72-inch (183 cm) SID — Easy Explanation: A long SID reduces magnification of the heart.

Question: On a lateral chest, separation of posterior ribs greater than ____ cm indicates rotation.

D) 1 — Easy Explanation: More than 1 cm of separation suggests the patient was rotated.

Question: Which action removes most of the scapulae from the lung fields?

A) Roll shoulders forward — Easy Explanation: Rolling the shoulders moves the scapulae laterally.

Question: Scoliosis and kyphosis may cause asymmetry of the SC joints and rib cage on a PA chest.

True — Easy Explanation: Spinal deformities can affect chest appearance.

Question: What is the primary disadvantage of an AP chest compared with a PA chest?

D) Increased magnification of the heart — Easy Explanation: The heart is farther from the IR in AP positioning.

Question: Which chest oblique best demonstrates the trachea, heart, and great vessels?

D) 60° LAO — Easy Explanation: The LAO position best shows mediastinal structures.

Question: Severe cystic fibrosis requires what manual exposure adjustment?

A) Increase (+) — Easy Explanation: Dense lung changes require more exposure.

Question: For anterior oblique chest images, the elongated thorax is generally farthest from the IR.

True — Easy Explanation: This is the correct oblique positioning principle.

Question: High-kV chest techniques generally require grid use.

True — Easy Explanation: Higher kV produces more scatter radiation.

Question: Epiglottitis requires what manual exposure adjustment?

B) Decrease (-) — Easy Explanation: Less exposure is needed because of airway swelling.

Question: Which positioning line should be perpendicular to the IR for an AP upper airway?

C) Acanthiomeatal — Easy Explanation: The AML is used for proper upper airway positioning.

Question: Severe emphysema requires what manual exposure adjustment?

B) Decrease (-) — Easy Explanation: Hyperinflated lungs require less exposure.

Question: Which condition involves collapse of all or part of a lung and requires increased exposure?

D) Atelectasis — Easy Explanation: Collapsed lung tissue appears denser.

Question: During a lateral upper airway projection, exposure should be made during a slow deep inspiration.

True — Easy Explanation: This helps demonstrate airway anatomy clearly.

Question: The vertical dimension of an average PA chest is greater than the horizontal dimension.

False — Easy Explanation: The horizontal dimension is generally greater.

Question: A small pneumothorax may be detected using inspiration and expiration PA projections.

True — Easy Explanation: Expiration views make small pneumothoraces easier to see.

Question: Which of the following is NOT an occupational lung disease?

B) Tuberculosis — Easy Explanation: Tuberculosis is infectious, not occupational.

Question: Pneumonia requires what manual exposure adjustment?

C) No change (0) — Easy Explanation: Standard exposure factors are usually sufficient.

Question: Bronchitis requires what manual exposure adjustment?

C) No change (0) — Easy Explanation: Routine factors are generally appropriate.

Question: For the AP apical lordotic projection, the CR is centered to the midsternum.

True — Easy Explanation: Midsternum is the correct centering point.

Question: Severe silicosis requires what manual exposure adjustment?

C) No change (0) — Easy Explanation: Standard factors are generally adequate.

Question: A possible mass beneath the clavicle is best demonstrated with which projection?

D) AP lordotic — Easy Explanation: The lordotic view projects the clavicles above the apices.

Question: Severe pulmonary edema requires what manual exposure adjustment?

A) Increase (+) — Easy Explanation: Fluid-filled lungs require more exposure.

Question: Why is the CR angled slightly caudad for most AP chest projections?

D) Prevents clavicles from obscuring lung apices — Easy Explanation: The clavicles are projected lower.

Question: Pneumothorax requires what manual exposure adjustment?

C) No change (0) — Easy Explanation: Standard factors are usually used.

Question: Advanced bronchiectasis requires what manual exposure adjustment?

C) No change (0) — Easy Explanation: Routine exposure is generally sufficient.

Question: Increased hilar radiodensity with air-fluid levels suggests:

J) Pulmonary edema — Easy Explanation: Pulmonary edema causes fluid accumulation in the lungs.

Question: Aspiration in the upper airway requires what manual exposure adjustment?

B) Decrease (-) — Easy Explanation: Less exposure is needed for airway obstruction studies.

Question: Coughing up blood is termed:

D) Hemoptysis — Easy Explanation: Hemoptysis means blood is present in the sputum.

Question: Tuberculosis requires what manual exposure adjustment?

C) No change (0) — Easy Explanation: Standard chest factors are usually used.

Question: Patchy infiltrates with increased radiodensity are characteristic of:

F) Pneumonia — Easy Explanation: Pneumonia causes localized lung consolidation.

Question: Pleurisy requires what manual exposure adjustment?

C) No change (0) — Easy Explanation: Routine factors are generally used.

Question: Slight shadows early and larger radiopaque masses later suggest:

I) Malignant lung cancer — Easy Explanation: Lung cancer often progresses from small lesions to large masses.

Question: Mild COPD requires what manual exposure adjustment?

C) No change (0) — Easy Explanation: Standard techniques are usually sufficient.

Question: A large pleural effusion requires what manual exposure adjustment?

A) Increase (+) — Easy Explanation: Fluid increases tissue density and requires more exposure.

Question: Severe cases that appear like emphysema are characteristic of:

E) COPD — Easy Explanation: Advanced COPD often produces emphysema-like changes.

Question: Inflammation of the pleura with possible air-fluid levels is called:

H) Pleurisy — Easy Explanation: Pleurisy may be associated with pleural fluid.

Question: Advanced respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) requires what manual exposure adjustment?

A) Increase (+) — Easy Explanation: Dense lung opacities require more exposure.

Question: Increased lung dimensions and a barrel chest are characteristic of:

B) Emphysema — Easy Explanation: Emphysema causes overinflation of the lungs.

Question: A contagious disease caused by airborne bacteria is:

A) Tuberculosis — Easy Explanation: TB spreads through airborne droplets.

Question: Pulmonary emboli require what manual exposure adjustment?

C) No change (0) — Easy Explanation: Standard chest techniques are generally used.

Question: Malignant lung neoplasia requires what manual exposure adjustment?

C) No change (0) — Easy Explanation: Routine exposure factors are typically sufficient.

Question: A lung displaced from the chest wall with no visible lung markings indicates:

C) Pneumothorax — Easy Explanation: Air in the pleural cavity causes lung collapse.

Question: Collapse of all or part of a lung is called:

G) Atelectasis — Easy Explanation: Atelectasis refers to partial or complete lung collapse.