(2) PSYCH Final Exam study guide #2

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Last updated 4:11 AM on 4/30/26
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109 Terms

1
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Emotions consist of which of the following components?

a) physiological arousal and cognitive appraisal

b) behavioral expressions and subjective interpretations of stimuli

c) awareness of bodily changes to external stimuli

d) physiological arousal, expressive behaviors, and conscious experiences

d) physiological arousal, expressive behaviors, and conscious experiences

2
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Humans learn to fear situations and objects through the process of association. The _____ plays an important role in associating various emotions with certain situations.

a) substantia nigra

b) amygdala

c) reflex pathways

d) hypothalamus

b) amygdala

3
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Complex emotional reactions follow a neural pathway from:

a) the thalamus to the amygdala to the cerebral cortex.

b) the amygdala to the cerebral cortex to the thalamus.

c) the thalamus to the cerebral cortex to the amygdala.

d) the amygdala to the thalamus to the cerebral cortex.

c) the thalamus to the cerebral cortex to the amygdala.

4
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Krishna believes that emotion comes from both physical arousal and a conscious interpretation of the arousal. This is consistent with:

a) the James-Lange theory.

b) the Cannon-Bard theory.

c) the two-factor theory.

d) Lazarus' theory.

c) the two-factor theory.

5
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People from different cultures are most likely to differ with respect to:

a) the way they categorize basic emotions such as fear and anger.

b) how they interpret hand gestures, for example, the "A-OK" sign.

c) the specific states of physiological arousal associated with their feelings of happiness or disgust.

d) their facial expressions showing different emotions such as sadness or surprise.

b) how they interpret hand gestures, for example, the "A-OK" sign.

6
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A train is rapidly approaching, and Antonio's car stalls in the middle of the railroad tracks. His emotional arousal is likely to be accompanied by:

a) a decreased blood sugar level.

b) a decreased respiration rate.

c) contraction of the arteries.

d) dilation of his pupils.

d) dilation of his pupils.

7
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The fact that emotions are influenced by ______ is demonstrated when we feel angry or depressed in response to a low exam grade based on whether we attribute the low grade to an unfair test or to our own lack of academic ability.

a) cognitive appraisals

b) relative deprivation

c) physical arousal

d) genetic predispositions

a) cognitive appraisals

8
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Your instructor asks you to explain emotion from biological, psychological, and socio-cultural levels. Which of the following explanations represents all three levels?

a) response pathways in the brain, expressiveness, presence of others

b) response pathways in the brain, spillover effect, gender differences

c) physiological arousal, cognitive labeling, cultural explanations

d) physiological arousal, evolutionary adaptiveness, expressiveness

c) physiological arousal, cognitive labeling, cultural explanations

9
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While biting your nails is an example of _______ aspect of emotion, an increase in heart rate is an example of _______ aspect of emotion.

a) expressive behaviors; bodily arousal

b) conscious experience; emotional arousal

c) bodily behaviors: expressive behaviors

d) expressive behaviors; conscious experience

a) expressive behaviors; bodily arousal

10
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If you were to give someone advice about how to become happy and remain happy, which of the following pieces of advice would you offer?

a) Real, long-lasting happiness comes from financial success.

b) Don't worry about personal contacts because close friends won't make you happy in the long run.

c) Give priority to close relationships, and seek work and leisure activities that you find engaging.

d) Focus on yourself, and don't worry about those in need.

c) Give priority to close relationships, and seek work and leisure activities that you find engaging.

11
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The perception that we are worse off compared to those with whom we compare ourselves is known as:

a) the adaptation-level phenomenon.

b) relative deprivation.

c) the feel-good, do-good phenomenon.

d) subjective well-being.

b) relative deprivation.

12
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People have a tendency to judge stimuli relative to those stimuli previously experienced. For example, if a man's current income level increases, he feels an initial surge of pleasure. However, as he adjusts to that income level, he begins to consider the new level normal. He then requires something better to feel another surge of happiness. This is known as:

a) relative deprivation.

b) the adaptation-level phenomenon.

c) the feel-good, do-good phenomenon.

d) subjective well-being

b) the adaptation-level phenomenon.

13
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Anger is not always wrong because:

a) It can be used to show others who is in charge.

b) It can temporarily calm us down and reduce future outbursts of anger.

c) releasing anger can reduce hostility.

d) It motivates people to take action and achieve goals.

d) It motivates people to take action and achieve goals.

14
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If you grimace in fear while taking a difficult exam, this facial expression is likely to cause:

a) you to have less difficulty recalling the correct answers to the exam questions.

b) you to experience increasingly intense feelings of fear.

c) your blood sugar levels to decline.

d) All of these things are going to happen.

b) you to experience increasingly intense feelings of fear.

15
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Which of the following is NOT an effective way to manage anger?

a) Reduce the level of physiological arousal of anger by waiting

b) Calm yourself by exercising. playing an instrument, or talking things through with a friend

c) express your anger in a hostile manner in order to release your aggressive feelings

d) move away from the situation mentally, as if you are watching it unfold from a distance

c) express your anger in a hostile manner in order to release your aggressive feelings

16
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Which of the following statements is true about gender, emotion, and nonverbal behavior?

a) Women's nonverbal sensitivity helps explain their greater emotional literacy.

b) Men's emotionality is typically attributed to their dispositions.

c) Women's emotionality is typically attributed to their circumstances.

d) Men generally surpass women at reading people's emotional cues when given "thin slices" of behavior.

a) Women's nonverbal sensitivity helps explain their greater emotional literacy.

17
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You think two of your friends who are single would be highly compatible, so you are trying to get them together. Which of the following might help to get them interested in each other?

a) Have them hold hands for a couple of minutes.

b) Have them look at each other's feet for a couple of minutes.

c) Have them look at each other's hands for a couple of minutes.

d) Have them gaze into each other's eyes for a couple of minutes.

d) Have them gaze into each other's eyes for a couple of minutes.

18
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A woman alone in a house ignores the creaking sounds she hears and experiences no stress. Another woman might hear the same sounds, suspect an intruder, and become alarmed. These different reactions illustrate the importance of:

a) biofeedback.

b) stress appraisal.

c) spontaneous remission.

d) the general adaptation syndrome.

b) stress appraisal.

19
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Jason is an introvert who prefers staying in and reading a good book. His friend Shawn is an extrovert who would much rather spend his time partying. In terms of each friend's ability to recognize facial expressions of emotion and to express emotions:

a) Shawn is better at recognizing emotion, and Jason is more expressive.

b) Jason is better at recognizing emotion, and Shawn is more expressive.

c) Both are equally good at recognizing emotion, but neither is very expressive.

d) Both are equally expressive, but neither is good at recognizing emotion.

b) Jason is better at recognizing emotion, and Shawn is more expressive.

20
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According to the James-Lange theory of emotion, which of the following is the correct sequence of events when a car drives directly toward us, and we experience emotion?

a) see an oncoming car; heart pounds, and at the same time cognitively label arousal; experience fear

b) see an oncoming car, experience fear

c) see an oncoming car, heart pounds, and at the same time experience fear

d) see an oncoming car, heart pounds, experience fear

d) see an oncoming car, heart pounds, experience fear

21
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Once again, the director of an ancillary department has interfered with your project. She has even accused you of illegal activities when you know that you have committed none. You discuss this situation with your boss, who helps you to reframe the situation and put things into perspective. The mere discussion helps relax you and:

a) is part of the adaptation-level principle.

b) produces a feeling of subjective well-being.

c) leads to a reappraisal of the situation.

d) is part of the relative deprivation principle.

c) leads to a reappraisal of the situation.

22
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While people with positive personalities are most likely to have greater activity in their ______, people who are prone to depression have increased activity in their _______.

a) left frontal lobe; right frontal lobe

b) right frontal lobe; left frontal lobe

c) left parietal lobe; right parietal lobe

d) amygdala; left hemisphere

a) left frontal lobe; right frontal lobe

23
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Stressors are

a) unpleasant environmental stimuli.

b) Events that are judged as potentially threatening or challenging and trigger coping adjustments.

c) environmental stimuli that a person has never experienced before.

d) events that cause heart rate and blood pressure to decrease.

b) Events that are judged as potentially threatening or challenging and trigger coping adjustments.

24
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Under instructions from the ______, the ______ glands release hormones that cause both primary and secondary stress responses.

a) thalamus; parathyroid

b) thalamus; pituitary

c) sympathetic nervous system; adrenal

d) somatic nervous system; thyroid

c) sympathetic nervous system; adrenal

25
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While the adrenal cortex produces ________, the adrenal medulla produces ________.

a) adrenaline: cortisol

b) epinephrine; corticosteroids

c) cortisol; adrenaline

d) adrenocorticotropic hormone; cortisol

c) cortisol; adrenaline

26
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Which of the following is NOT correct about stress?

a) It triggered by events that are judged as potentially threatening or challenging.

b) It disrupts process that maintains internal environment within optimal ranges.

c) Response to it is more than physiological.

d) Only physical and acute stress can lead to a variety of poor health outcomes.

e) It can affect our health directly, through harmful behaviors, and indirectly.

d) Only physical and acute stress can lead to a variety of poor health outcomes.

27
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Which of the following statements about relationship between stress and illness is correct?

a) Stress provides extra energy to the immune system, enhancing the activities of its B and T lymphocytes, macrophages, and NK cells.

b) Stress does not cause diseases such as AIDS and cancer, but by altering our immune functioning, it may make us more vulnerable to them and influence their progression.

c) Stress does not affect surgical wound healing and development of colds.

d) Type A women are more likely to have heart attacks.

b) Stress does not cause diseases such as AIDS and cancer, but by altering our immune functioning, it may make us more vulnerable to them and influence their progression.

28
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Stress response: While Cortisol is released in large quantities during "fight-or-flight" (SAM), Epinephrine(Epi) is released in large quantities about 30 minutes later during secondary (HPAC) response.

True

False

False

29
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HPA/HPAC response: The ______ gland secrets ______, which binds to receptor cells on the _____, causing this gland to release cortisol into blood.

a) Pituitary: CRH; Adrenal Medulla

b) Pituitary; ACTH; Adrenal Medulla

c) Adrenal; ACTH: Adrenal Medulla

d) Pituitary; ACTH; Adrenal Cortex

e) Adrenal: CRH; Adrenal Cortex

d) Pituitary; ACTH; Adrenal Cortex

30
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All of the following statements about daily hassles are correct EXCEPT:

a) Small irritants, minor stress

b) Add up to produce negative effect on health/cognition

c) Not as damaging as they are small irritants, minor stress

d) Chronic in nature

c) Not as damaging as they are small irritants, minor stress

31
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We all experience various types of stressors during our lifetime. A person's unexpected death is an example of which of the following?

a) Major life event that affects fewer.

b) Personal stressor that affects fewer.

c) Cataclysmic event that affects many.

d) (a), (b), and (c)

e) and (b) only

f) and (c) only

d) (a), (b), and (c)

32
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Cognitive Appraisal/Transactional Model: The assessment of one's resources and determination of how sufficient the resources are to meet the demands of a stressful event is called primary appraisal.

True

False

False

33
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SAM system is more active during alarm stage, while HPAC system is more active during resistance stage of General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS).

True

False

True

34
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Cognitive Appraisal Model: Something becomes more stressful when a situation is ________.

(a) Perceived to be challenging

(b) We think we can adequately handle it

(c) Perceived to be harmful or threatening

(d) We think we can not adequately handle it

e) (a) and (b)

f) (c) and (d)

g) (a) and (d)

f) (c) and (d)

35
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Which of the following about stress and illness is NOT correct?

a) Although stress does NOT create or lead to cancer cells, it may affect their growth by suppressing the activity of T lymphocytes.

b) Chronic stress triggers persistent inflammation, which increases the risks of heart disease and depression.

c) According to the Diathesis-Stress Model, disease outcomes result from the interaction between a person's physiological and psychological vulnerabilities and the stressors he or she experiences.

d) Glucocorticoids such as cortisol do not contribute to the development of illness as they play anti-inflammatory role.

d) Glucocorticoids such as cortisol do not contribute to the development of illness as they play anti-inflammatory role.

36
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Ryan has been going through a great deal of stress at work. He has recently developed an ulcer because of the stress. According to Selye's General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS), Ryan is in the

a) Alarm stage.

b) Stage of resistance.

c) Stage of stimulation.

d) Stage of exhaustion.

d) Stage of exhaustion.

37
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Which of the following about social support is NOT correct?

a) It calms cardiovascular system, which lowers blood pressure and stress hormone levels.

b) It fights illness by fostering stronger immune functioning.

c) Perception of an available social network is not enough to buffer the individual in stressful settings.

d) It includes informational, instrumental, and emotional types.

c) Perception of an available social network is not enough to buffer the individual in stressful settings.

38
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The social support that is most helpful/benefitial in the stressful situation is a/an ______ support.

a) Informational

b) Instrumental

c) Emotional

d) Appropriate

d) Appropriate

39
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The primary types of cognitive coping styles are ________.

a) Engagement/disengagement- and problem-focused

b) Problem/emotion-focused and psychological-focused

c) Engagement- and emotion-focused

d) Problem/emotion-focused and engagement/disengagement-focused

d) Problem/emotion-focused and engagement/disengagement-focused

40
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Which one is NOT true about people who use a negative explanatory style/pessimistic?

a) They have tendency to passively disengage and ruminate.

b) They tend to explain failures in terms that are global, stable, and internal.

c) They tend to believe that the conditions that lead to failure are all around them or within them.

d) As "realists", they perceive more control over stressors and choose more effective coping strategies.

d) As "realists", they perceive more control over stressors and choose more effective coping strategies.

41
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Imagine that your best friend just shared the following news with you: "I just got laid off from my only job (full-time) and I have no money to feed my dog"..." The following statement (emotional support) will be the most helpful/benefitial to your friend in this situation: "With your education (PhD) and previous employment experience, I am sure you will find another job soon!"

True

False

False

42
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All of the following High Intensity Interval Training (HIIT) alternate options/activities were presented in class, EXCEPT:

a) Biking

b) Sprinting

c) Boxing

d) Tennis Wall

c) Boxing

43
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Which of the following statements about Exercise is NOT correct?

a) All complex systems need to engage in play and be exercised.

b) In order to get a maximum of benefits, biologically appropriate exercises should be performed.

c) High-intensity interval training (HIIT) has too many detrimental side effects for our cardiovascular system.

d) Exercise helps to stimulate neural pathways in order to prevent degeneration.

c) High-intensity interval training (HIIT) has too many detrimental side effects for our cardiovascular system.

44
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Factors affecting the ability to cope with stress and prevent health-related issues include

a) personal control

b) personality type

c) hardiness and resilience

d) (a), (b), and (c)

e) (a) and (b) only

f) (a) and (c) only

d) (a), (b), and (c)

45
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Glymphatic system is a functional waste clearance pathway for the ________.

a) Endocrine system

b) Central Nervous System

c) Immune system

d) Digestive system

e) Reproductive system

b) Central Nervous System

46
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Problem-focused coping attempts to control and balance our emotional response to a stressor.

True

False

False

47
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Becoming depressed and turning to substance abuse are examples of disengagement coping.

True

False

True

48
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Physiologically, men and women differ in how they cope with stress in each of the following ways EXCEPT:

a) Men display greater stress-induced secretion of catecholamines such as epinephrine.

b) Men exhibit tendency to be more hostile than women.

c) Women exhibit a stronger glucocorticoid (e.g., cortisol) response to stress than men.

d) Women exhibit larger increase in their cholesterol levels.

d) Women exhibit larger increase in their cholesterol levels.

49
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Emotion-focused coping is more effective with chronic stressors as people get tired of long-term stress.

True

False

False

50
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In response to a potential stressor that has been perceived by the sensory organs, the ______ alerts the brain to an impending threat or challenge.

a) pituitary gland

b) reticular formation

c) hypothalamus

d) hippocampus

e) medulla

c) hypothalamus

51
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As "realists", pessimists are less likely than optimists to develop heart disease.

True

False

False

52
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Stress Reduction: In class, I provided the following definition of _______ :" When your thoughts, your words, and your actions are in harmony/the same".

a) happiness

b) calmness

c) internal balance

d) enlightenment

e) internal bliss

a) happiness

53
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All of the following statements about sensory storage are correct, EXCEPT

a) It is a differentiated buffer that includes inputs from different sensory modalities.

b) It is a precategorical storage; serves as a buffer for the stream of information that is constantly coming in through our senses.

c) It is a storage that holds information in an unanalyzed way.

d) It is a single, large, undifferentiated buffer that includes inputs from different sensory modalities.

d) It is a single, large, undifferentiated buffer that includes inputs from different sensory modalities.

54
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Miller's classic article, on the "magical number...", introduced the concept of a chunk. According to Miller, a chunk is:

a) Fit together readily as a pattern distinct from the things around it.

b) The basic unit in short-term memory.

c) Familiar to the person and available in long-term memory.

d) All of the responses

d) All of the responses

55
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In order to investigate short-term memory, some of the first experimental techniques used backward counting by threes (e.g., Brown-Peterson task). This was done to

a) ensure that a person is able to rehearse quickly.

b) ensure that sufficient decay has occurred during the delay.

c) ensure that a person is not able to rehearse.

d) expand the capacity of the short-term memory system.

c) ensure that a person is not able to rehearse.

56
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While _____ occurs when something you learned before (old) interferes with your recall of something you learn later (new), ______ occurs when something you learn later (new) interferes with your recall of something you learned before (old).

a) retroactive interference; proactive interference

b) proactive interference; retroactive interference

c) retro interference: novel interference

d) retrograde interference; prograde interference

b) proactive interference; retroactive interference

57
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You just called your old romantic partner by a new partner's name. This is the example of which of the following?

a) Interactive interference

b) Proactive interference

c) Anteroactive interference

d) Retroactive interference

d) Retroactive interference

58
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Suppose that you have been assigned to work in pairs. Your classmate has just told you his cell phone number, and you repeat it to yourself several times as you search for a pen to record it. The technique you are using to remember the number is called

a) Repeated rehearsal.

b) Pollyanna effect.

c) Maintenance rehearsal.

d) Elaborative rehearsal.

c) Maintenance rehearsal.

59
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Which of the following students' statements best characterizes Alan Baddeley's (Baddeley-Hitch) view of working memory (WM)?

a) Student: "WM serves only as a gateway on the route to long-term memory."

b) Student: "WM has three divisions: sensory working memory, short-term working memory, and long-term working memory."

c) Student: "WM is a dynamic state of the more general long-term memory store."

d) Student: "WM has few separate divisions, each with its own specialized kind of cognitive activity."

d) Student: "WM has few separate divisions, each with its own specialized kind of cognitive activity."

60
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Suppose that you have been watching a "Dancing with the Stars" competition. You close your eyes and you try to remember how the last pair performed their routine. The component of your working memory that is now most active is

a) Visual memory

b) Central executive

c) Echoic memory

d) Phonological loop

e) Visuospatial sketchpad

e) Visuospatial sketchpad

61
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WM Model: The central executive is all of the following, EXCEPT

a) It is a system that allocates resources to maximize performance.

b) It is associated with frontal lobe.

c) It is a system that stores information.

d) It plans and coordinates cognitive activities.

e) It is the main system for controlling attention.

c) It is a system that stores information.

62
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The component of WM Model that places events from the phonological loop and visuospatial sketchpad into a coherent sequence is known as

a) Visuospatial sketchpad

b) Echoic buffer

c) Intermittent buffer

d) Episodic buffer

e) Phonological loop

d) Episodic buffer

63
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Oliver is trying to make an online purchase, but he doesn't have his credit card. He calls his wife, who reads the 16-digit credit card number to him. Unfortunately, Oliver cannot remember the number long enough to type it into the computer. This is because:

a) the serial position effect is interfering.

b) the short-term memory is limited in duration and capacity.

c) his iconic memory is interfering.

d) he is rehearsing too hard.

b) the short-term memory is limited in duration and capacity.

64
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We use the phonological loop when we acquire new vocabulary by repeating a native speaker.

True

False

True

65
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Imagine that you are shopping at your grocery store, and you are adding up five 2-digit numbers in your head. As you begin to calculate the final sum, you feel that you've reached the limits of your memory. This strain can be traced to

a) A conflict between top-down and bottom-up processing.

b) The difficulty of keeping all this material in your working memory.

c) The difficulty of transferring material from working memory to long-term memory.

d) Material that is larger than the span of sensory memory.

b) The difficulty of keeping all this material in your working memory.

66
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You are trying to recall a new security code that your boss just told you. The number was 6153PT, but you remember it as 6153BD. This kind of error is known as

a) an internal vocalization.

b) an acoustic confusion.

c) a phonological loop confusion.

d) an auditory confusion.

b) an acoustic confusion.

67
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After you look up the phone number to order a pizza, you hear the number in your head over and over until you dial the number. The phone number is being processed in the

a) Phonological loop

b) Central executive

c) Acoustic confusion

d) Long-term memory

e) Visuospatial sketchpad

a) Phonological loop

68
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Which of the following statements about long-term memory (LTM) is NOT true:

a) A cue/hint stimulates LTM.

b) Compare to short-term memory, LTM has large capacity.

c) Information in LTM fades quickly without rehearsal.

d) Compared to short-term memory, information can be retrieved long after the experiences past.

c) Information in LTM fades quickly without rehearsal.

69
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Prolonged stress can actually improve memory via enhanced activity of hippocampus.

True

False

False

70
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Which of the following sentences describes an example of procedural memory?

a) "I can state seven days of one week."

b) "Turning right on a snowboard."

c) "Answering applied questions on my PSYC 1101 exams."

d) "There are 12 months in a year."

e) "Reading notes for Vivaldi's ‘Four Seasons’ violin concertos."

b) "Turning right on a snowboard."

71
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When you read musical notes, you use semantic memory.

True

False

True

72
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_______ memory is memory for things that happened to you and ______ memory is memory for things such as facts, language, world.

a) Episodic, semantic

b) Semantic, biographic

c) Semantic, episodic

d) Procedural, biographic

a) Episodic, semantic

73
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The levels-of-processing approach

a) emphasizes the difference between short-term memory and long-term memory.

b) proposes that we remember material better if we encode it in terms of appearance characteristics.

c) emphasizes that the best way to learn something is to repeat it over and over.

d) proposes that processing of material on semantic level leads to more permanent retention.

e) proposes that processing of material on structural level leads to more permanent retention

d) proposes that processing of material on semantic level leads to more permanent retention.

74
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Hermann Ebbinghaus observed that it is much easier to learn meaningful material than to learn nonsense material. This BEST illustrates the advantage of:

a) deep processing.

b) implicit memory.

c) the "peg-word" system.

d) the spacing effect.

a) deep processing.

75
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Suppose that you are listening to an announcer read the names of the winners in an athletic event. You recall the first four names accurately, but you can't recall the names that appeared later in the list. This phenomenon is called:

a) The primacy effect

b) Chunking

c) The recency effect

d) Proactive interference

a) The primacy effect

76
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The encoding specificity principle suggests that

a) Retrieval is better if we are in the same context and state in which we originally learned the material.

b) Retrieval depends upon how specific the instructions are; vague instructions lead to poor retrieval.

c) Retrieval has nothing to do with cues of initial encoding.

d) Retrieval is better if we are in a context and state that is very different from the original learning context.

a) Retrieval is better if we are in the same context and state in which we originally learned the material.

77
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Consuming coffee (as a stimulant) during an Exam 2 because you were drinking coffee while studying is an example of a ______.

a) context-dependent retrieval

b) concentration-dependent retrieval

c) stimulating retrieval

d) state-dependent retrieval

d) state-dependent retrieval

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We use retrieval cues to access target information. The BEST retrieval cues include tastes, smells, or sights that were part of the original context when the memory was encoded.

True

False

True

79
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Godden and Baddeley conducted a memory experiment using two groups of scuba divers. One group listened to a list of words while sitting on a beach. The other group listened to the same list of words while 10 feet underwater. What did the researchers discover about context and learning?

a) Participants who listened to the words on the beach did best, regardless of where they were asked to recall them.

b) There was no difference between the two groups.

c) The greatest recall for the words happened when learning and testing were in the same context (e.g., learn underwater, get tested underwater).

d) Participants who listened to the words underwater did best, regardless of where they were asked to recall them.

c) The greatest recall for the words happened when learning and testing were in the same context (e.g., learn underwater, get tested underwater).

80
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Henry suffered brain damage due to carbon monoxide poisoning. He is now unable to remember events from his past. Henry is experiencing ______amnesia. His coworker James suffered a stroke. After a stroke, James can remember things from his past but is unable to remember new information. James has _____ amnesia.

a) Short-term; retrograde

b) Anterograde; retrograde

c) Retrograde; anterograde

d) Short-term; long-term

c) Retrograde; anterograde

81
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A friend in class thinks you should study for a test in the same classroom that you have lecture and take the test in. Why would he suggest such an idea?

a) the learning-dependent effect

b) the context-dependent effect

c) the Pollyanna principle effect

d) the state-dependent effect

e) the distributed practice effect

b) the context-dependent effect

82
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Suppose that you are trying studying for an Abnormal Psychology exam, and you decide to apply various symptoms to people you know (e.g., friends, TV characters). You are using

a) Familiarity effect

b) Negative emotions

c) Psychological features

d) Friends network

e) Self-reference

e) Self-reference

83
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Research of the function of the hippocampus suggests which of the following?

a) (a) and (c) only

b) The more consolidated a memory becomes, the less it depends on hippocampus.

c) (a) and (b) only

d) © The more consolidated a memory become, the more it depends on hippocampus.

e) The hippocampus is critical for episodic encoding (binding multiple features).

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Korsakoff Syndrome is associated with severe thiamine (B 1) deficiency.

True

False

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All of the following about Alzheimer's disease is correct EXCEPT:

It can be treated and reversed due to the scientific advancement.

• It has been associated with amyloid-beta aggregation - related issues and tau protein-related issues.

One of the US Presidents passed way from that disease.

It is normally a long-term condition.

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McKenzie is using operant conditioning to teach her dog to sit by giving the dog a treat each time she sits.

• True

False

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Pavlov presented a sound followed by meat in his experiments. Gradually, the sound came to elicit salivation. While the sound in this experiment would be considered the __, the salivation to the meat in this experiment was the _

unconditioned stimulus: unconditioned response

unconditioned response: conditioned stimulus

conditioned stimulus; unconditioned response

conditioned response; unconditioned response

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In operant conditioning, punishment is an event that increases the future probability of a response.

True

False

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Debra regularly buckles her seat belt simply because it turns off the car's irritating warning buzzer. This BEST illustrates the value of positive reinforcement.

True

False

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To reduce the self-destructive behavior of some children, a therapist might squirt water in the children's faces whenever they bite themselves. The squirt of water is a positive reinforcement.

True

False

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With continuous reinforcement, an organism is reinforced

_ With intermittent reinforcement, an organism is reinforced

at a variable rate; at a specific rate

using negative reinforcement; using continuous reinforcement

with primary reinforcers: with secondary reinforcers

every time the desired behavior occurs; sporadically, when the desired behavior occurs

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Continuously checking to see if the cookies are ready is an example of the __

_ schedule of reinforcement.

fixed-interval

variable-interval

fixed-ratio

variable-ratio

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Jill has a headache and takes a pain reliever to end the pain. This is an example of a:

spontaneous recovery.

cognitive process.

primary reinforcer.

negative reinforcer.

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Pop quizzes and random Extra Credit opportunities help to produce slow, steady responses and are examples of the - schedule of reinforcement in their respective areas.

•.

variable-ratio

fixed-ratio

fixed-interval

variable-interval

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Olivia is now grounded and can't go with her friends to the movies this weekend because she broke a house rule. This is an example of:

negative reinforcer.

positive punishment.

conditioned reinforcer.

negative punishment.

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You have been working nights and weekends to get a project completed at work. You are successful, and a couple of weeks later when you come into work, your boss presents you with a bonus check. This bonus encourages you to work more nights and weekends. Your new behavior BEST illustrates the value of:

negative reinforcement.

surprising reinforcement.

positive reinforcement.

operant behavior.

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Irene is having trouble convincing her husband that spanking isn't necessarily the best way to control their child's behavior. Which of the following arguments should she NOT use to support her position?

When spanked, children do not forget the punished behavior; they simply suppress it. They are not taught what behavior to exhibit in its place.

Spanking can create fear in children.

Spanking provides a model of aggressive behavior as a tool for problem solving.

Spanking is a form of discipline that has been used for generations.

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When Mandi gives rewards to her toddler daughter based on specific desired behaviors, such as saying, "Please," she is _ __ her

daughter's behavior.

preparing

shaping

averting

modeling

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Mirror neurons in the brain are believed to be the neural basis for associative conditioning.

True

False

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provide(s) an integrated understanding of associative learning in terms of genetic predispositions, culturally learned preferences, and the predictability of certain associations.

A biopsychosocial approach

A three-facets approach

A multicultural approach

Pavlov's experiments

Skiner's behaviorism