USMF STATE EXAM PEDIATRIC DENTISTRY [CS]

6. CS. Mark when the mineralization of the first temporary molars is complete

a. at month 1-2 of extrauterine life

b. at the 6th month of extrauterine life

c. at 3-4 months of extrauterine life

d. at 9 months of extrauterine life

e. at 12 months of extrauterine life

B

20. CS. Indicate when eruption of lower second premolars begins

a. at 12 years old

b. at 11-12 years old

c. at 10-11 years old

d. at 9-10 years old

e. at 10-12 years old

B

21. CS. Indicate when the eruption of upper second premolars begins

a. at 12 years old

b. at 11-12 years old

c. at 10-11 years old

d. at 9-10 years old

e. at 10-12 years old

E

27. CS. Indicate when resorption of the roots of the first temporary molars begins

a. 8 years

b. 4 years

c. 5 years

d. 9 years

e. 6 years

E

32. CS. Mark the correct statements about the Carabelli tuber

a. is a morphological variation of permanent teeth

b. is a pathological variation of permanent teeth

c. it is more commonly found on the mesiopalatal surface of the upper first permanent molar

d. it is more commonly found on the mesio-palatal surface of the upper permanent second molar

e. in the temporary dentition it is more commonly found in lower first molars on the vestibular surface

C

10. CS. Identify the pH level below which the period of aggression appears in the oral cavity:

a. 4.8

b. 5.2

c. 6

d. 7

e. 7.2

C

69. CS. Specify the optimal dose for fluoridation of table salt:

a. 100 - 200 mg sodium fluoride per 1 kg salt

b. 200 - 250 mg sodium fluoride per 1 kg salt

c. 300 - 350 mg sodium fluoride per 1 kg salt

d. 400 - 450 mg sodium fluoride per 1 kg salt

e. 500 - 550 mg sodium fluoride per 1 kg salt

B

22. CS. Select the values of the tooth electroexcitability in the case of the acute focal pulpitis of the permanent tooth at the children:

a. 0 - 6 mkA

b. 6 - 12 mkA

c. 12 - 20 mkA

d. 20 - 30 mkA

e. 30 - 60 mkA

C

23. CS. Select the values of the tooth electroexcitability in the case of the acute focal pulpitis of the permanent tooth at the children:

a. 0 - 6 mkA

b. 6 - 12 mkA

c. 12 - 20 mkA

d. 20 - 30 mkA

e. 30 - 60 mkA

D

25. CS. Indicate were the probing in case of chronic gangrenous pulpitis of permanent tooth at children is painful:

a. in the point of pulpal horn projection

b. in the entire floor of the carious cavity

c. in the entire floor of the carious cavity and in the point of pulpal chamber opening

d. in the coronary part of pulp

e. in the orifices of channels or in the depth of channels

E

12. CS Select the correct chemical composition of silver diamine fluoride

a) 25% silver ions, 15% fluoride ions, 8% ammonia

b) 25% silver ions, 5% fluoride ions, 8% ammonia

c) 25% silver ions, 5% fluoride ions, 18% ammonia

d) 5% silver ions, 5% fluoride ions, 8% ammonia

e) 20% silver ions, 5% fluoride ions, 8% ammonia

B

50. CS. Name the 5th stage of dispensary control of children to the dentist:

a. Primary examination and rehabilitation

b. Registration

c. Prophylaxis in the dispensary system

d. Realization of the dispensary plan

e. Individual prophylaxis, rehabilitation in the dispensary system

E

1. CS. Select the duration of the neonatal period

a. the first 4 weeks after the birth of the child

b. the first 2 weeks after the birth of the child

c. the first 6 weeks after the birth of the child

d. during his 9th intrauterine development

e. during the 9th month of intrauterine development and the first month of the child's life

A

5. CS. Indicate the buds whose teeth begin to form in the antenatal period

a. all temporary teeth, first molars, incisors and canines

b. first molars and central incisors

c. first molars and incisors

d. first molars, incisors and canines

e. first molars, upper and lower central incisors, lower lateral incisors

A

7. CS. Specify the terms of foundation of the buds of the first permanent molars

a. IV week of intrauterine development

b. week X of intrauterine development

c. month 4 of intrauterine development

d. month 8 of intrauterine development

e. month 6 after birth

C

12. CS. Specify from which tissue of the tooth bud the cementum is formed

a. from the mesenchymal cells of the dental sac

b. from the mesenchymal cells of the dental papilla

c. from the epithelial cells of the internal layer of the enamel organ

d. from the anterior sector of the dental plate

e. from the epithelial sheath of Hertwig

A

14. CS. Indicate when the eruption of the upper temporary central incisors begins (by Logan)

a. at 5 months of the child's life

b. at 6 months of the child's life

c. at 8 months of the child's life

d. at 10 months of the child's life

e. at 12 months of the child's life

D

15. CS. Indicate when the eruption of the upper temporary canines begins (by Logan)

a. at 13 months of the child's life

b. at 6 months of the child's life

c. at 7 months of the child's life

d. at 10 months of the child's life

e. at 20 months of the child's life

E

16. CS. Indicate when the eruption of the permanent upper lateral incisors begins

a. at 6-7 years

b. at 5-6 years

c. at 7-8 years

d. at 8-9 years

e. at 7 years

D

17. CS. Indicate when the permanent lower lateral incisors begin to erupt

a. at 6-7 years

b. at 5-6 years

c. at 7-8 years

d. at 8-9 years old

e. at 7 years old

D

18. CS. Indicate when the eruption of the upper permanent canines begins

a. at 12 years old

b. at 11-12 years old

c. at 10-11 years old

d. at 9-10 years old

e. at 10 years old

B

19. CS. Indicate when the first lower premolars begin to erupt

a. at 12 years old

b. at 11-12 years old

c. at 10-11 years old

d. at 9-10 years old

e. at 10-12 years old

E

22. CS. Indicate when the eruption of the upper permanent second molars begins

a. at 12-13 years old

b. at 11-12 years old

c. at 10-11 years old

d. at 9-10 years old

e. at 10-12 years old

A

23. CS. Indicate when eruption of lower permanent second molars begins

a. at 12-13 years old

b. at 11-13 years old

c. at 10-11 years old

d. at 9-10 years old

e. at 10-12 years old

B

26. CS. Indicate when resorption of the roots of the lateral temporary incisors begins

a. 3 years

b. 4 years

c. 5 years

d. 2.5 years

e. 6 years

C

30. CS. Indicate the terms of complete formation of the roots of temporary second molars

a. 2 years

b. 1.5 years

c. 2.5 years

d. 4 years

e. 6 years

D

33. CS. Select which tooth scoring system the following dental formula is based on

a. the French school system

b. the American school system

c. arithmetic scoring system

d. the FDI grading system

e. the international grading system

e

34. CS. Select which tooth scoring system the following dental formula is based on

a. the French school system

b. the American school system

c. arithmetic scoring system

d. the FDI grading system

e. the international grading system

b

2. CS. Name the mineralized dental deposits:

a. microorganisms

b. bacterial plaque

c. supragingival calculus

d. food debris

e. acquired pellicle

C

3. CS. Select the notion of an acellular pellicle formed from saliva and gingival fluid:

a. subgingival calculus

b. bacterial plaque

c. materia alba

d. food debris

e. acquired pellicle

E

4. CS. Clarify what represents a complex of bacteria and cellular detritus loosely adherent:

a. subgingival calculus

b. bacterial plaque

c. materia alba

d. food debris

e. acquired pellicle

C

5. CS. Determine how the acquired pellicle can be removed:

a. by rigorous rinsing with water

b. by toothbrushing

c. by professional oral hygiene

d. with a water jet

e. through muscular activity

C

9. CS. Mark the critical pH of bacterial plaque:

a. 3.8

b. 4.4

c. 4.7

d. 5.2

e. 5.5

D

13. CS. Mark the carbohydrate with the highest cariogenic potential:

a. starch

b. dextrins

c. galactose

d. sucrose

e. maltose

D

14. CS. Select the index for assessing oral hygiene status in 8-year-old children:

a. dmft

b. DMFT

c. CPITN

d. OHI-S (Green - Vermillion)

e. Fedorov - Volodkin

D

15. CS. Select the location where the OHI-S (Green - Vermillion) index is assessed:

a. vestibular surfaces of 36, 46, 31 and lingual surfaces of 16, 11, 26

b. vestibular surfaces of 16, 41, 31 and lingual surfaces of 16, 11, 26

c. vestibular surfaces of 16, 11, 26, 31 and lingual surfaces of 36, 46

d. lingual surfaces of 36, 41, 46 and vestibular surfaces of 11, 26, 36

e. vestibular surfaces of 16, 11, 21, 26 and lingual surfaces of 46, 41, 31, 36

C

16. CS. Specify the location where the API plaque index (Lange - 1981) is evaluated:

a. vestibular surfaces of 16, 11, 26 and lingual surfaces of 36, 31, 46

b. interdental spaces from the oral side in quadrants 2 and 4 and from the vestibular side in quadrants 1 and 3

c. interdental spaces from the oral side in quadrants 1 and 3 and from the vestibular side in quadrants 2 and 4

d. vestibular surfaces of 36, 46, 31 and lingual surfaces of 16, 11, 26

e. interdental spaces from the oral side in quadrants 1 and 2 and from the vestibular side in quadrants 3 and 4

C

17. CS. Clarify when the value "3" is assigned for the Silness - Löe plaque index:

a. a thin cervical deposit is present, difficult to see, observed after scraping with the rounded tip of the periodontal probe

b. plaque covers between 1/3 and 1/2 of the tooth surface

c. a thick deposit is observed on almost the entire tooth surface

d. a plaque band covers from 1 mm to 3 mm of the tooth surface

e. soft deposits are found on cervical and approximal surfaces

C

18. CS. Clarify when the value "2" is assigned for the Silness - Löe plaque index:

a. a thin cervical deposit is present, difficult to see, observed after scraping with the rounded tip of the periodontal probe

b. plaque covers between 1/3 and 1/2 of the tooth surface

c. a thick deposit is observed on almost the entire tooth surface

d. a plaque band covers from 1 mm to 3 mm of the tooth surface

e. soft deposits are found on cervical and approximal surfaces

E

19. CS. Specify what the value 35 - 70% of the API index (Lange) means:

a. unsatisfactory oral hygiene

b. perfect oral hygiene

c. average oral hygiene

d. absent oral hygiene

e. relatively good oral hygiene

C

28. CS. Name which oral hygiene products you would recommend for a child with increased caries activity:

a. toothpastes with mineral salts

b. therapeutic-preventive toothpastes with fluorides

c. therapeutic-preventive toothpastes with medicinal plant extracts

d. hygienic toothpastes

e. the toothpaste does not matter

B

36. CS. Select the indications for toothpastes containing mineral salts:

a. periodontitis

b. fluorosis

c. focal enamel demineralization

d. enamel erosion

e. enamel hypoplasia

A

37. CS. Specify the fluoride concentration in enamel responsible for a maximum caries-protective effect:

a. 1000 ppm

b. 2000 ppm

c. 2500 ppm

d. 3000 ppm

e. 3500 ppm

D

42. CS. Indicate the optimal fluoride concentration in drinking water:

a. 0.3 - 0.8 mg/L

b. 0.5 - 0.9 mg/L

c. 0.8 - 1.2 mg/L

d. 2.3 - 3.0 mg/L

e. more than 6.0 mg/L

C

43. CS. Name the optimal dose for fluoridation of drinking water:

a. 0.2 mg F/L of water

b. 0.5 mg F/L of water

c. 0.75 mg F/L of water

d. 1 mg F/L of water

e. 1.5 mg F/L of water

D

49. CS. Specify the frequency of using 0.2% sodium fluoride solution for mouth rinsing to prevent dental caries in children:

a. once a day

b. once every three days

c. once a week

d. once every two weeks

e. once a month

C

54. CS. Specify enamel thickness in the fissure area:

a. 0.4 - 0.6 mm

b. 0.6 - 0.8 mm

c. 0.8 - 1.0 mm

d. 1.0 - 1.2 mm

e. 1.2 - 1.4 mm

B

60. CS. Select at which pH level lactobacilli stop their activity:

a. 3.5

b. 3.8

c. 4.0

d. 4.3

e. 4.7

B

64. CS. Clarify PMA index values corresponding to mild gingivitis:

a. <10%

b. <30%

c. >50%

d. 30 - 60%

e. >60%

B

66. CS. Name the index for assessing the frequency and intensity of periodontal diseases:

a. dmft

b. DMFT

c. PMA

d. CPITN

e. OHI-S (Green - Vermillion)

D

67. CS. Select the caries prevention method consisting of administering vitamin D, multivitamins, microelements, and fluoride preparations:

a. endogenous non-pharmacological

b. endogenous pharmacological

c. exogenous non-pharmacological

d. exogenous pharmacological

e. tertiary prophylaxis

B

68. CS. Indicate the caries prevention method consisting of rational nutrition:

a. endogenous non-pharmacological

b. endogenous pharmacological

c. exogenous non-pharmacological

d. exogenous pharmacological

e. tertiary prophylaxis

A

70. CS. Specify the WHO objective up to 2025 for 12-year-old children:

a. DMFT maximum 2.0

b. DMFT maximum 2.5

c. DMFT maximum 1

d. DMFT ≤ 3.5

e. DMFT ≤ 3.0

C

71. CS. Select primary prophylaxis measures in dentistry

a. measures to restore lost functions of the dento-maxillary apparatus after tooth loss or disease

b. a complex of diagnostic methods for caries and its complications, periodontal diseases, dento-maxillary anomalies and their elimination

c. a complex of measures aimed at eliminating factors that can cause diseases of teeth and periodontium, eliminating harmful habits, health education, etc.

d. treatment of dental caries

e. treatment of caries complications

C

73. CS. Specify for what purpose the Cariogram software is used:

a. assessing the activity level of the caries process

b. assessing enamel resistance to acid action

c. assessing the rate of enamel remineralization

d. assessing saliva's capacity to remineralize enamel

e. caries prediction

E

1. CS. Tick when resorption of roots V temporary tooth begins:

a. at the age of 5 years

b. at the age of 6 years

c. at the age of 7 years

d. at the age of 8 years

e. at the age of 9 years

C

2. CS. Indicate where probing of carious cavity in case of acute diffuse pulpitis is:

a. painful in a point of cavity floor

b. painful on the entire cavity floor or in several points of the cavity floor

c. painful in the neck region

d. painful at cavity walls

e. painful in the region of enamel-dentine junction

B

3. CS. Explain what clinical manifestations of chronic fibrous pulpitis are the following:

a. there are no accuses, sometimes paroxysmal pains provoked by different excitants: thermal, mechanical and chemical ones

b. nighttime spontaneous pains without irradiation, provoked by any excitant

c. rarely, pains after change of temperature from cold to warm

d. piercing pains, often caused by mechanic excitants, often hemorrhages from dental cavity

e. permanent pains, gradually intensifying, especially during mastication or when touching the tooth

A

4. CS. Name which among the various forms of pulpitis most often at children are observed:

a. acute focal form

b. acute diffuse form

c. chronic fibrous form

d. chronic gangrenous form

e. chronic hypertrophic form

C

5. CS. Explain in which case carious cavity is communicate with the dental cavity:

a. acute focal form

b. acute diffuse form

c. chronic fibrous form

d. chronic gangrenous form

e. chronic hypertrophic form

E

6. CS. Specify when affection of apical periodontium tissues is most often detected radiologically in the following form of temporary teeth pulpitis:

a. acute diffuse pulpitis

b. acute pulpitis with affection of periodontium and lymphatic ganglions

c. chronic fibrous pulpitis

d. chronic gangrenous pulpitis

e. chronic hypertrophic pulpitis

D

8. CS. Select when devitalizing pastes (with arsenic) are contraindicated for application during the first visit in the treatment of:

a. acute purulent pulpitis

b. acute pulpitis with involvement of parodontal tissues

c. chronic gangrenous pulpitis

d. chronic hypertrophic pulpitis

e. chronic fibrous pulpitis

B

16. CS. Select when the root formation of central permanent incisors is end:

a. 8-9 years

b. 9-10 years

c. 10-11 years

d. 12-13 years

e. 13-14 years

B

17. CS. Name when the root formation of 6 permanent teeth is ends:

a. 9-10 years

b. 11-12 years

c. 12-13 years

d. 13-14 years

e. 15-16 years

A

19. CS. Determine the examination methods used in the diagnosing of pulpitis of permanent teeth:

a. only the basic examination methods

b. only the additional examination methods

c. the basic examination methods and one secondary method: electroodontodiagnostic

d. the basic methods and radiography

e. all the basic and secondary examination methods

E

20. CS. Specify what the big percentage of non-coincidence between clinical and patho-morphological diagnosis of pulpitis is determined by the following factors:

a. imperfection of diagnostic methods for pulpitis

b. late visit to the dentist

c. very often - close dental cavity

d. hyperemitric character of inflammation

e. small dental crown

A

21. CS. Indicate of the pain location during the carious cavity probing at the diffuse acute pulpitis of the permanent tooth at the children is:

a. at a point on the floor of the cavity

b. on the whole floor of the cavity or in some points of the floor of the cavity

c. in the region of the tooth package

d. on the walls of the cavity

e. in the region of the enamel-dentin junction

B

24. CS. Tick the electro-excitability of pulp in case of chronic fibrous pulpitis of permanent tooth at children is equal to:

a. 0-12 mkA

b. 12-20 mkA

c. 20-30 mkA

d. 30-60 mkA

e. 60-90 mkA

D

29. CS. Tick what antibiotics and sulfanilamide are used in the biological treatment of pulpitis of permanent teeth for a period not exceeding:

a. 2 minutes

b. 2 hours

c. 24 hours

d. 48 hours

e. 5-7 days

E

30. CS. Explain why hormonal preparations are used for the biological treatment of permanent tooth pulpitis for a limited time, as they:

a. possess antiinflamatory, antiseptic properties and facilitate the regeneration of pulp

b. possess antiinflamatory, dehydrating properties, hamper the regeneration processes in pulp

c. possess antiinflamatory, analgesic, anti-allergic properties, can disturb the hormonal status of organism

d. possess antiinflamatory, anti-allergic and plastics stimulation properties

e. possess antiinflamatory, plastics stimulation properties and disturb the immune state of organism

B

41. CS. To evaluate the fistula is detected most often in case of apical periodontitis of permanent teeth:

a. acute serous

b. acute purulent

c. chronic granulated

d. chronic granulomatous

e. chronic fibrous

C

1. CS Select the correct statement for the characteristic of acute caries

a) larger opening on the surface and smaller extension in depth

b) rapid evolution towards depth

c) the odontal lesion has a hard, rough, brown surface

d) remineralization processes prevail over demineralization ones

e) the dental pulp has the possibility of depositing reaction dentin in large quantities

B

2. CS Select the correct statement for the location of carious cavities in primary teeth of class VI according to Black

a) the proximal surfaces of the primary incisors and canines are affected, without the incisal angle being involved

b) the occlusal surfaces of the primary molars are affected

c) the carious cavities are located in the cervical third of the dental crowns

d) the carious cavities are located on the tip of the cusps of the primary molars, or the incisal edge

e) the proximal surfaces of the incisors and canines are affected with the incisal angle being involved

D

3. CS Select the correct statement for the location of carious cavities in primary teeth of class IV according to Black

a) the proximal surfaces of the primary incisors and canines are affected, without the incisal angle being involved

b) the occlusal surfaces of the primary molars are affected

c) the carious cavities are located in the cervical third of the dental crowns

d) the carious cavities are located on the tip of the cusps of the primary molars, or the incisal edge

e) the proximal surfaces of the incisors and canines are affected with the incisal angle being involved

E

4. CS Select the correct statements for the characteristic of incipient caries in primary teeth

a) the incipient lesions are easily visible when the surface is wet

b) it is an irreversible form of caries

c) it represents the first clinically detectable stage of caries

d) it represents the next stage after superficial caries

e) it is located on all surfaces except the proximal surfaces

C

5. CS Select the clinical signs characteristic of early caries of primary teeth

a) evolution is slow, lasting - 2-3 years

b) smooth tooth surfaces are not affected or are affected very rarely

c) only the proximal surfaces of all teeth are affected

d) the onset of the disease is immediately after the eruption of the first primary teeth

e) dentin is usually smooth, shiny, hard

D

6. CS Select the device that uses the principle of changes in the electrical conductivity of dental hard tissues during demineralization processes

a) RIUS technology

b) TIUS technology

c) Optical coherence tomography

d) Electroodontometer

e) LF device

D

11. CS Select the contraindications for fissure sealing

a) previously sealed teeth that have lost the sealing material

b) incompletely erupted occlusal surface that cannot be well isolated

c) teeth that have incipient caries, limited to the enamel, in the area of the pits and dental fissures

d) adult teeth that suffer from severe drug-induced xerostomia or, especially,

e) position of the tooth in incomplete occlusion

B

15. CS Select the correct option for describing the term enameloplasty

a) is a method of replacing dental hard tissues with composite materials

b) is a method of removing all affected dental hard tissues

c) is a minimally invasive method of treating incipient carious lesions

d) is a method of sealing occlusal cracks and grooves

e) is a method of selectively grinding affected dental hard tissues

C

16. CS Select the correct statements for the clinical protocol of class I cavities that are conservative in enamel and limited in dentin

a) the preparation consists exclusively of excision of the altered dentin

b) the preparation consists of strict removal of the affected enamel by enameloplasty and excision of the affected dentin

c) the lateral walls of the cavity are strictly parallel

d) the cavity must be extended into the enamel to increase the adhesion of the material

e) the cavity walls will be prepared strictly at an angle of 900 to the cavity floor

B

17. CS Select the correct statement for the dentin lesion treatment method, which is applied in deep caries, in which the pulp wall is made up of hard, colored dentin

a) natural capping

b) indirect capping

c) direct capping

d) direct medicated capping

e) preventive obturation

B

18. CS Select the correct statement for the method of treatment of the dentinal lesion, applied in deep caries, in which the pulp wall is made up of hard, colored dentin and interrupted at the pulp horn by a small amount of altered dentin, which does not open the pulp chamber

a) natural capping

b) direct medicated capping

c) indirect capping

d) preventive obturation

e) direct capping

A

29. CS Select the critical period for the development of dental fluorosis

a) post-eruptive period

b) period of tooth eruption

c) period of enamel formation and mineralization

d) intrauterine period

e) primary school period

C

39. CS Select the definition for molar-incisor hypomineralization

a) is a hereditary enamel anomaly that affects all teeth

b) is a quantitative hypoplastic defect of enamel

c) is a qualitative defect of enamel mineralization, of systemic origin

d) is a hypoplasia with early onset, complicated by carious involvement

e) is a pathology of dental hard tissues that develops exclusively post-eruptively

C

40. CS Select the typical color of opacities in molar-incisor hypomineralization syndrome

a) white, translucent, uniform

b) brown, glossy

c) chalky white, yellow-brown, well-defined

d) pearly gray, with clear contours

e) brown-black, without clear contour

C

41. CS Select which tests or examinations are mainly used to diagnose molar-incisor hypomineralization

a) radiological examination

b) genetic tests

c) clinical examination after eruption of permanent teeth

d) salivary analysis

e) microbiological tests

C

44. CS Select the correct statements for the term Anodontia

a) absence of a single tooth

b) absence of several teeth

c) absence of all teeth

d) reduction of tooth size

e) fusion of two tooth germs

B

45. CS Select the most common number anomaly in the permanent dentition

a) total anodontia

b) generalized hyperdontia

c) oligodontia

d) hypodontia

e) supernumerary teeth

D

46. CS Select the correct statements regarding macrodontia

a) increased number of teeth

b) absence of a tooth

c) increased volume of a tooth

d) reduction in crown size

e) structural defect of enamel

C

47. CS Select which teeth are most commonly affected by microdontia

a) permanent molars

b) primary canines

c) upper lateral incisors

d) lower premolars

e) primary molars

C

48. CS Select which tests or examinations are used to diagnose number anomalies

a) genetic testing

b) histological examination

c) clinical and radiological examination

d) vitality tests

e) salivary examination

C

1. CS Indicate the child's age when the height of the alveolar process exceeds that of the mandibular body:

a) preschool age

b) early preschool age

c) infancy

d) early school age

e) middle school age

C

2. CS State the age of the child at which the mandibular foramen is located 6 mm above the occlusal surfaces of the molars:

a) 9 months-1.5 years

b) 1-3 years

c) 5-4 years

d) 12 years

e) 9 years

E

3. CS Specify which condition is characterized by acute, short-term cerebral vascular insufficiency:

a) lipothymia (syncope)

b) hyperthermic syndrome

c) anaphylactic shock

d) collapse

e) drug intoxication

A

4. CS Indicate which of the following conditions causes the symptom of bronchospasm:

a) toxic shock

b) lipothymia (syncope)

c) cardiovascular collapse

d) anaphylactic shock

e) hypothermic syndrome

D

5. CS Name the conditions that require urgent treatment with antihistamines:

a) anaphylactic shock

b) toxic shock

c) collapse

d) syncope

e) cardio-pulmonary insufficiency

A

6. CS Specify in which situations toxic shock may occur:

a) allergic reactions of the body

b) negative emotions

c) acute dental pain

d) excessive administration of the anesthetic

e) young age of the child

D

9. CS Indicate the age range of the child; in the lymphatic system, it performs the function of b:

a) 1-3 years

b) 4-6 years

c) 7-8 years

d) 9-10 years

e) 10-12 years

C

11. CS Name the local clinical signs that characterize the subperiosteal abscess originating from the upper central incisors:

a) swelling of the lower eyelid

b) swelling of the chin region

c) marked swelling of the entire upper lip in the form of a tapir lip

d) marked swelling of the chin that significantly deforms the child's face

e) swelling of the cheek extending toward the submandibular region

C

12. CS Choose which of the following situations corresponds to the definition of an odontogenic subperiosteal abscess:

a) inflammation of the periosteum of the maxillae caused by dental or periodontal infections

b) an infectious process characterized by the presence of purulent collections and a tendency toward septic invasion with marked tissue lysis and necrosis

c) a secondary bone destruction process resulting from local-regional trophic disorders caused by physical, chemical, or thermal agents

d) a circumscribed lesion containing viscous fluid, located subperiosteally

e) It is an osteoperiostitis with diffuse thickening of the maxillae

A