GROUND SCHOOL Pumped and Dumped (NIFE 2025)

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Last updated 1:57 AM on 6/3/26
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117 Terms

1
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Student Crew Day begins with the ____ scheduled ground event or ____ minutes prior to brief and _____ not exceed ____ hours

first, 30, shall, 12

2
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Regarding Crew Rest, how many hours shall be afforded prior to commencement of crew day?

12

3
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Stall recoveries SHALL be completed above _________

1500' AGL

4
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Maintain at or above ___________ over NOLF Silverhill within a ______ radius of the center of the field

1500' MSL, 2 NM

5
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As applicable, what SHALL the student control regarding CRM roles and Responsibilities?

navigation aids, radios, transponder, and perform duties as assigned.

6
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Who is responsible for procedures delineated in [FTI] and all crewmember duties?

Student

7
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What are the duties that the student is responsible for that is delineated in [FTI], according to the NIFE SOP?

Navigation, communication, checklists, and backing up the PIC by monitoring aircraft performance

8
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If instructor ceases training, what SHALL the student do?

Acknowledge and continue crewmember duties unless directed otherwise by instructor

9
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T/F: Backseat crew members do not need to remain attentive and be available to assist the PIC as directed for the duration of the flight

False. Backseat Crewmembers SHALL remain attentive and be able to assist the PIC as directed for the duration of the flight

1 multiple choice option

10
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When SHALL the cockpit be a sterile environment?

Critical phases of flight to include takeoff, climb-out, and the approach to landing.

11
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When is takeoff not authorized with weather?

Below a 1500' ceiling and 3 SM visibility in the general area

12
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If not developing as forecasted, flights are authorized within Convective SIGMET with the following criteria:

1. Shall maintain VMC

2. Shall continuously monitor weather RADAR on EKB/PED

3. Suitable divert available with 1500' ceilings / 3 SM vis

13
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Peter Prince Field (2R4) pattern work is not authorized when ceilings are below ________ feet

2000

14
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T/F: Students SHALL NOT conduct landings in the rain or when any standing water is present on the runway

True. Students SHALL NOT conduct landings in the rain or when any standing water is present on the runway

1 multiple choice option

15
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Minimum fuel SHALL be declared whenever the estimated usable fuel at the point of landing will be _____ gallons or less

12

16
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Emergency Fuel SHALL be declared whenever the estimated usable fuel at the point of landing will be _____ gallons or less

6

17
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If your estimated usable fuel at the point of landing will be 6 gallons or less, what SHALL aircrew do?

Declare an emergency and report the fuel remaining in minutes

18
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The minimum runway length for normal operations is _________

3000'

19
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The recommended minimum runway length for emergency field selections is _________

2000'

20
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Mixture SHALL be full rich for ____________, ____________, and _________ ___________

Take-offs, landings, and traffic patterns

21
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What is a conversation starter between student and IP to address any specific risks and determine follow on mitigations?

IMSAFE

22
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What does IMSAFE stand for?

Illness, Medication, Stress, Alcohol, Fatigue, Eating

23
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Who investigates why a mishap occurred, and all factors involved?

Aviation Mishap Board (AMB)

24
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All mishap safety investigations are solely for ________ purposes

safety

25
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An unplanned event or series of events, directly involving a defined aircraft, that results in damage and/or injury or illness is called what?

Naval Aviation Mishap

26
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Which type of aviation mishap is where there is intent for flight and consists of reportable damage to a DoD aircraft or UAV or the loss of a DoD manned aircraft?

Flight Mishap

27
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Which type of aviation mishap is where there was intent for flight and consists of no reportable damage to the aircraft, but involves fatality, injury, or property damage?

Flight Related Mishap

28
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Which type of aviation mishap is where there is no intent for flight but results in reportable damage to an aircraft or UAV, or death or injury involving an aircraft or UAV?

Aviation Ground Mishap (AGM)

29
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Intent for flight for Fixed Wings are defined as:

When brakes are released and/or takeoff power applied until landed clear of runway

30
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Intent for flight for Helos/Tilt-Rotors are defined as:

Takeoff power applied until full weight on skids/landing gear (not including touch/stop-and-go)

31
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Class A mishaps are $____________ or more in damage, and/or total loss of aircraft, death/permanent total disability of personnel.

$2.5 million

32
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What type of mishap investigation is when an AMB is convened, and an investigation is conducted to determine contributing factors in order to prevent reoccurrence

Aviation Mishap Safety Investigation

33
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Which type of investigation is for the purpose of identifying possible negligence and liability?

JAGMAN Investigation

34
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Which type of board is convened for all class A/B mishaps if the aircrew's performance is in question?

Field Naval Evaluation Board, USN (FNAEB) or Field Flight Performance Board, USMC (FFPB)

35
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Which administrative board evaluates the performance, potential, and motivation for continued service as a Naval Aviation, before they are returned for flight duties after Class A/B Flight mishaps?

Field Naval Evaluation Board, USN (FNAEB) or Field Flight Performance Board, USMC (FFPB)

36
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AMB's have the protection of privilege to allow what?

To allow those involved to tell the truth without fear of retribution or punitive action

37
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T/F: Reports in terms of safety does NOT follow to JAG Investigations

True

1 multiple choice option

38
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What are the four types of accident or incident reporting?

Anymouse, ASAP, HAZREPs, and SITREPs

39
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Which accident/incident reporting is an anonymous report in a drop box directly to the CO?

Anymouse

40
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Which accident/incident reporting is voluntary reporting of safety issues and events?

ASAP (Aviation Safety Awareness Program)

41
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Which accident/incident reporting involves any potential hazard that could contribute to a mishap, awareness to others, SA on corrective actions, and to document a continuing hazard to establish risk severity and exposure?

HAZREPs (Hazard Report)

42
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Which accident/incident reporting informs COC of an incident that isn't always aviation related?

SITREPs (Situation Report)

43
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What is the Priority for Regulation Compliance while in NIFE Flight Phase?

1. SOP

2. NATOPS

3. CNAF 3710.7

4. FLIP

5. FAR/AIM

44
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What are the three programs of Wildlife Hazard Programs?

Bird/Wildlife Aircraft Strike Hazard (BASH), Bird Avoidance Model (BAM), and Avian Hazard Advisory System (AHAS)

45
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What supplies a visual model to avoid areas of known bird strikes?

BAM

46
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What is a predictive advisory system regarding Wildlife Hazard Programs?

AHAS

47
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Which program of the Wildlife Hazard Programs includes awareness, control, and avoidance?

BASH

48
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What are the three levels of ORM?

In-depth, Deliberate, and Time Critical

49
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Which level of ORM involves time not being a limiting factor and the right answer is required for success?

In-depth ORM

50
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Which level of ORM states that there is ample time to apply the ORM process during the detailed planning of a mission or task?

Deliberate ORM

51
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Which level of ORM is used during execution of a mission with little to no time to make a plan?

Time Critical ORM

52
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Which level of ORM is where personnel operate daily?

Time Critical

53
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What is the ABCD Model of Time Critical Risk Management?

Assess the Situation, Balance Resources, Communicate to others, Do and Debrief the Situation

54
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What are the four basic principles that guide the ORM process?

1. Accept risk when benefits outweigh the cost

2. Accept no unnecessary risk

3. Anticipate and manage risk by planning

4. Make risk decisions at the right level

55
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What are the five steps of ORM?

1. Identify hazards

2. Assess hazards

3. Make risk decisions

4. Implement controls

5. Supervise

56
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What is the single leading causal factor for Class A mishaps in modern naval aviation?

Both Human Error and Inadequate CRM

3 multiple choice options

57
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If you have a break of 7-13 days, what are the warmup events?

1 optional

58
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If you have a break of 14-30 days, what are the warm up events?

1 Mandatory and 1 Optional

59
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What is the Throttle setting during the "Run Up" Checklist?

1700 RPM

60
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According to the Run Up Checklist/Hollywood Script on "Mags", RPM drop should not exceed _________ RPM drop on either side or show greater than ______ RPM difference between Magnetos

125 RPM, 50 RPM

61
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According to the Run Up Checklist/Hollywood Script for "Carb Heat", when you pull the carb heat knob out for "On", what should the RPM drop be?

50-100 RPM

62
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The Cessna 172 is powered by a __________ opposed, _____ cylinder __________ engine with a wet sump oil system that is rated for _____ horsepower at _______ RPM

horizontally, four, carbureted, 180, 2700

3 multiple choice options

63
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T/F: The Cessna 172 is carbureted and NOT fuel injected

True: The Cessna 172 is carbureted and NOT fuel injected

1 multiple choice option

64
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T/F: The Cessna 172 uses a Lycoming Model engine and NOT a Continental model engine

True: The Cessna 172 uses a Lycoming Model engine and NOT a Continental model engine

1 multiple choice option

65
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The first indication of carburetor icing in an airplane with a fixed-pitch propeller is what?

A decrease in engine RPM, why may be followed by engine roughness

66
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What action is defined as utilizing a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements in 10-degree sectors?

VFR Scan regarding See and Avoid Doctrine

67
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For a VFR Scan (See and Avoid Doctrine), what does the normal scan area consist of?

60 degrees either side from center and 10 degrees up and down

68
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For a VFR Scan (See and Avoid Doctrine), what does the day scan consist of?

Use cones to best identify an object by directly making eye contact with it

69
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What does the acronym "GOOSEAACAT" refer to?

Daytime VFR Required Equipment

70
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What does the acronym "GOOSEAACAT" consist of?

Gas Gauge

Oil Pressure Gauge

Oil Temp Gauge

Seatbelts

Emergency Locator Transmitter

Airspeed Indicator

Altimeter

Compass

Anti-Collision Lights

Tachometer

71
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For recurrent inspection requirement, what are the four items required on board when the aircraft is operated? (AROW)

Airworthiness Certificate, Registration Certificate, Operating Limitations (POH, Placard, instrument markings), and Weight and Balance (FAA certified W&B)

72
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To ensure positive exchange of controls, what type of exchange must be done?

Positive three-way exchange of controls

73
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What do you utilize when making changes in flight such as climbing, descending, or adjusting airspeed?

The PAT Principle

74
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What does the PAT principle mean?

Power (Set/Reset), Attitude (Adjust the Pitch), and Trim (For the new attitude)

75
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In order to conduct a level speed change, what KIAS should you establish the aircraft at?

90 KIAS

76
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In the beginning of a level speed change, what should you reduce the power to?

~1500 RPM

77
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As you approach 55 KIAS during a level speed change, you increase the power to maintain altitude at ________ RPM

2100

78
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As you finish up the level speed change, your turn is a ____ degree heading change

90

79
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What does the power off stall and power on stall simulate?

Power off stall simulates approach to landing and the Power on stall simulates climb after takeoff

80
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What steps do you take at first indication of a power off stall? (Recovery)

Relax, Max, Carb Heat to Off, Level Ball

81
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What steps do you take at first indication of a power on stall? (Recovery)

Relax, Max, Level, Ball

82
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PAT Principle in a region of Normal Command, _________ primarily controls airspeed and ________ primarily controls altitude

Power, Pitch

83
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PAT Principle in a region of Reverse Command, _________ primarily controls airspeed and ________ primarily controls altitude

Pitch, Power

84
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What are the 4 T's that must be conducted for Traffic Pattern Procedures?

Transition, Trim, Turn, Talk

85
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What are the 3 steps, in order, for touch and go?

Flaps up, Carb Heat to Off, Power to Full Power

86
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If not in a safe position to land in the first 1/3 of the runway, you can conduct _________________ procedures

Waveoff

87
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For a waveoff, what are your power and carb heat settings?

Smoothly apply max power and carb heat to off

88
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What are the emergency procedures in priority order?

Aviate, Navigate, Communicate

89
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What fuel contamination are we most concerned with?

Water in the fuel

90
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Engine operation is monitored by the following 3 instruments, which are what?

Oil Pressure Gauge, Oil Temperature Gauge, and Tachometer

91
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How many engine-driven magnetos does the Cessna have?

Two magnetos

92
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What does "Step on the ball" mean?

Apply the left or right rudder in the direction that the ball is suspended in the Turn Coordinator/Inclinometer in order to return to coordinated flight

93
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What are the instruments that the static port and pitot tube gather information for?

Static port provides for the airspeed indicator, altimeter, and vertical speed indicator while the Pitot tube provides information for the airspeed indicator.

94
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For a waveoff, you should increase pitch to nose slightly ________ the horizon

above

95
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For a Waveoff, after you verify airspeed and two positive rates of climb, you should retract your flaps _____________

incrementally

96
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At the end procedures of a Power off stall, Power on stall, and a Wave off, your Attitude needs to pitch for ____

Vy

97
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The reason that the Magnetic Compass are subject to numerous errors are due to the following: Error in magnetic variation is from the differences between _______ and ______ directions and Errors in magnetic deviation are from _______ magnetic fields in the aircraft

True, Magnetic, local

98
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What is supplied to support measured errors for the Magnetic compass?

Compass Correction Card

99
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What is the tolerance for altimeter?

Showing within 75' of airfield elevation for your current altimeter setting dialed in

100
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What are the 7 Critical Skills required for CRM? (SADCLAM)

Situational Awareness, Assertiveness, Decision Making, Communication, Leadership, Adaptability/Flexibility, Mission Analysis