IT 370 Final - Green/Yellow Only

1. Which of the following provides a mechanism to access and query directory services systems?

A. TACACS

B. LDAP

C. TACACS+

D. RADIUS

B. LDAP

2. Which of the following would Joe use to encrypt a message that only Sally could decrypt?

A. Joe's private key

B. Sally's private key

C. Joe's public key

D. Sally's public key

D. Sally's public key

3. Which of the following is true of the requirements to use SSL on a website?

A. The web server must have a certi7cate.

B. The client must have a certi7cate.

C. The web server and the client must have a certi7cate.

D. Neither the web server nor the client must have a certi7cate.

A. The web server must have a certi7cate.

6. Which of the following is a type of table that tracks IPsec security associations?

A. SPI

B. SA

C. ESP

D. AH

A. SPI

7. Which of the following is used to generate each session key in IPsec?

A. IKE

B. SA

C. ESP

D. AH

A. IKE

8. You have two devices that are connected to the same switch with IP addresses in the same network. After placing the two devices in separate VLANs, they can no longer ping one another. At what layer of the OSI model are the VLANs providing separation?

A. Network

B. Data link

C. Session

D. Transport

B. Data link

9. Using which of the following protocols can expose your switches to a switch spoofing attack?

A. SSL

B. VTP

C. DTP

D. STP

C. DTP

10. Which is the only security zone in which PII should be located?

A. DMZ

B. Extranet

C. Intranet

D. Public cloud

C. Intranet

11. Which of the following devices can also provide web caching services?

A. Proxy firewall

B. Packet fitering firewall

C. Stateful firewall

D. Host-based firewall

A. Proxy firewall

14. In which operating system is iptables used?

A. Windows

B. Sun Solaris

C. Linux

D. Novell

C. Linux

15. Which of the following packets will be allowed according to the iptables rule that follows? iptables -A INPUT -i eth1 -s

192.168.0.0/24 -j DROP

A. A packet from 192.168.1.6/24

B. A packet from 192.168.0.6/24

C. A packet from 192.168.0.1/24

D. A packet from 192.168.0.240/24

A. A packet from 192.168.1.6/24

16. Which of the following cannot be accomplished using port security?

A. Set the minimum number of MAC addresses that can be seen on a port.

B. Take a specific action when a port violation occurs

C. Define exactly which MAC addresses are allowed on the port.

D. Set the maximum number of MAC addresses that can be seen on a port.

A. Set the minimum number of MAC addresses that can be seen on a port.

17. Which standard describes centralized port-based access control?

A. 802.11i

B. 802.1x

C. 802.12

D. 802.10

B. 802.1x

19. Which of the following is not an example of an authenticator in an 802.1x architecture?

A. 802.1x capable switch

B. Access point

C. RADIUS server

D. VPN server

C. RADIUS server

20. Which statement is false with respect to router ACLs?

A. The order of the rules is important.

B. An implied deny all rule is located at the end of all ACLs.

C. It is possible to log all traffic that meets any of the rules.

D. All rules in the list are considered before the traffic is allowed.

D. All rules in the list are considered before the traffic is allowed.

22. Which of the following parts of a MAC address identify the manufacturer of the interface?

A. UAA

B. BAA

C. OUI

D. EUI-64

C. OUI

23. Which of the following is a standard method of implementing NIC teaming?

A. 802.1ax-2008

B. 802.3

C. 802.1x

D. 802.3g

A. 802.1ax-2008

25. Which of the following tools is used to set the speed and duplex of an interface in Windows?

A. Network and Sharing

B. Device Manager

C. Server Manager

D. Devices and Printers

B. Device Manager

26. Which of the following is the port number for SMTP?

A. 21

B. 161

C. 25

D. 20

C. 25

27. Which of the following services uses port number 22?

A. SFTP

B. NTP

C. HTTP

D. HTTPS

A. SFTP

28. Which of the following has lost favor to SSH because it sends data—including passwords—in plain-text format?

A. POP3

B. Telnet

C. RDP

D. IMAP

B. Telnet

29. Using which pair of configurations will result in a crossover cable?

A. T568A and T568A

B. T568B and T658B

C. T568A and T568B

D. T568A and a completely reversed wiring pattern

C. T568A and T568B

30. Which is the category of cable required for 10 Gbps transmissions?

A. CAT 3

B. CAT 5

C. CAT 5e

D. CAT 6

D. CAT 6

31. Which of the following is the loopback address in IPV6?

A. 127.0.0.1

B. FE80::

C. ::1

D. FEC0:

C. ::1

32. Which of the following is the IPv6 prefix of an auto configured address?

A. 127.0.0.1

B. FE80::

C. ::1

D. FEC0:

B. FE80::

33. When implementing CIDR, what configuration setting is manipulated to size the subnet as desired?

A. IP address

B. Subnet mask

C. Default gateway

D. Duplex

B. Subnet mask

34. Which of the following is not a private IP address? A. 10.0.0.5

B. 172.16.5.9

C. 192.168.5.9

D. 172.32.63

D. 172.32.63

35. Which of the following is an APIPA address?

A. 168.254.3.3

B. 172.16.5.9

C. 192.168.5.9

D. 169.254.5.6

D. 169.254.5.6

37. Which of the following is not a FQDN?

A. tmcmillan

B. tmcmillan.acme.com

C. ws5.ajax.com

D. smitht.smithcorp.com

A. tmcmillan

38. When does a device use a DNS suffix search list?

A. At all times

B. When an unqualified hostname is encountered

C. When an FQDN is encountered

D. When the users select to use the list

B. When an unqualified hostname is encountered

41. Which snapshot type is taken every time a user enters data or changes data and it only includes the changed data?

A. Site to site

B. Copy-on-write

C. Array-based

D. Split mirror

B. Copy-on-write

42. Which of the following is required to be supported to perform an open file backup?

A. VSS

B. BAA

C. OUI

D. EUI-64

A. VSS

44. Which backup media type provides linear access to the data?

A. CD

B. Tape

C. DVD

D. External hard drive

B. Tape

45. What is the purpose of creating a backup using checksums?

A. For integrity verification

B. To encrypt the data

C. To speed restoration

D. To deduplicate the data

A. For integrity verification

47. Which of the following uses three sets of backup tapes?

A. GFS

B. Tower of Hanoi

C. FIFO

D. LIFO

A. GFS

48. Which of the following rotation schemes does not protect against data errors?

A. GFS

B. Tower of Hanoi

C. FIFO

D .LIFO

C. FIFO

50. What is a safe temperature range for tape media? A. 32-74 degrees

B. 50-90 degrees

C. 32-100 degrees

D. 60-80 degrees

A. 32-74 degrees

51. Which of the following site types contains only electrical and communications wiring, air conditioning, plumbing, and raised flooring?

A. Mirrored

B. Warm

C. Cold

D. Hot

C. Cold

53. Which method has the biggest impact on the performance of the host being replicated?

A. Bare metal

B. Disk to disk

C. Site to site

D. Server to server

D. Server to server

54. Which of the following replication methods is the most expensive?

A. Bare metal

B. Full

C. Site to site

D. Server to server

C. Site to site

55. Which document provides the information necessary to create the DRP?

A.BCP

B.DCP

C.BIA

D.DIA

A. BCP

57. What file attribute is used to communicate to the backup system whether a particular file has changed since the last backup?

A. Read only

B. Archive

C. System

D. Hidden

B. Archive

58. Which backup method does not clear the archive bit? (Choose two.)

A. Full

B. Differential

C. Incremental

D. Copy

B. Differential

D. Copy

59. Which of the following always requires exactly two tapes to restore?

A. Full

B. Differential

C. Incremental

D. Copy

B. Differential

60. You do a full backup every Saturday at 1 a.m. and an incremental backup every other day of the week at 1 a.m. A drive failure occurs on Thursday afternoon at 5:30. How many backup tapes do you need to restore?

A. 1

B. 3

C. 4

D. 6

D. 6

61. Which if the following need not be matched correctly?

A. multiple CPUs

B. multiple memory modules

C. multiple network cards

D. multiple power supplies

C. multiple network cards

62. Which of the following is a true of server backplanes?

A. They can be a single point of failure

B. They provide data and control signal connectors for CPU

C. Backplane failure are common

D. You could implement redundant backplanes

A. They can be a single point of failure

64. What should the humidity be in the server room?

A. 30%

B. 40%

C. 50%

D. 80%

C. 50%

65. What can be the result of low humidity?

A. corrosion

B. ESD

C. RFI

D. EMI

B. ESD

66. Which of the following is a short term voltage drop?

A. blackout

B. surge

C. brownout

D. sag

D. sag

67. Which of the following is used to test a power supply?

A. POST card

B. toner probe

C. multimeter

D. ESD strap

C. multimeter

69. Which if the following occurs when an application is issued some memory to use and does not return the memory?

A. Kernel panic

B. BSOD

C. memory leak

D. mantrap

C. memory leak

70. Which command ensures the system files are all intact?

A. sfc /scannow

B. Bootrec /Rebuild Bed

C. BOOTREC IFIXBOOT

D. BOOTREC IFIXMBR

A. sfc /scannow

71. Which of the following steps in the Comptia troubleshooting method come last?

A Verify full system functionality and if applicable implement preventative measures

B. Document findings, actions and outcomes throughout the process

C. Identifying the problem and determining the scope

D. Perform a root cause analysis

B. Document findings, actions and outcomes throughout the process

72. Which of the following actions should be taken before making changes during troubleshooting?

A reboot the computer in safe mode

B. perform a backup

C. notify the user

D. disable the antimalware

B. perform a backup

73. Which of the following statements is true with regard to troubleshooting?

A Make one change at a time

B. if multiple users are involved, the source is likely their local computers

C. you should always try to replicate the issue in the production environment D. always assume the cabling Is good

A Make one change at a time

74. Which of the following events causes chip creep?

A high humidity

B. overheating

C. dropping the device

D. power surges

B. overheating

75. Replacing slots covers helps to prevent which event?

A. corrosion

B. overheating

c. theft

D. EMI

B. overheating

76. Which of the following is frequently the source of the error message Data_Bus_Error?

A motherboard

B. memory

C. CPU

D. hard drive

B. memory

77. What is typically the solution if an integrated component does bad.?

A. replace the component

B. replace the socket

C. replace the motherboard

D. disable the component

C. replace the motherboard

78. Which of the following is NOT a source of slow hard drive performance?

A fragmentation

B. lack of memory

C. Improper data cables

D. excessive interrupts

D. excessive interrupts

79. Which of the following starts by using a pre-selected minimal set of drivers and startup programs? A. clean boot

B. safe mode

C. diagnostic boot

D. core mode

A. clean boot

80. Which if the following is designed to replace the BIOS?

A. EEPROM

B. UEFI

C. BCD

D. GUID

B. UEFI

81 What is the code number of a destination unreachable message when it indicates the destination host is unreachable?

A. 0

B. 1

c. 2

D. 3

B. 1

82 You receive a destination unreachable message with no source IP address. Where is it coming from?

A. A remote router

B. A remote DNS server

C. A local DNS server

D. The local router

D. The local router

84. Which server could be the source of an inability to connect to a local host by name?

A NAT server

B. SQL server

C. DNS server

D. Web server

C. DNS server

85. At what layer of the OSI model are devices in different VLANs separated?

A Layer 1

B. Layer 2

C. Layer4

D. Layer 7

B. Layer 2

87. Which of the default mask of a Class B network?

A 255.0.0.0

B. 255.255.0.0

C. 255.255.255.0

D. 255.255.255.255

B. 255.255.0.0

88. Which of the following features can administrators use to create smaller networks called subnets, by manipulating the subnet mask of a larger classless or major network?

A. NAT

B. CIDR

C. DHCP

D.DNS

B. CIDR

90. Which commands are used on a router to identify the path taken to a destination network? (Choose two.) A. traceroute

B. tracert

C. ipconfig/trace

D. trace

A. traceroute

B. tracert

91. Which of the following addresses is used to test the functionality of the NIC?

A 0.0.0.0

B. 127.0.0.1

c. 255.255.255.255

D. 0.0.0.1

B. 127.0.0.1

92. Which of the following features will assign a host with an address in the 169.254.x.x range with a subnet mask of 255.255.0.0?

A. NAT

B.DHCP

C. APIPA

D.SSID

C. APIPA

93. Which of the following is the 1Pv6 prefix of a link local address?

A FE20: :/64

B. 2001: :164

C. FFEE: :/64

D. FE80: :164

D. FE80: :164

94. Which of the following commands clears the local DNS cache?

A. ipconfigtnushdns

B. flushdns

C. cachelflushdns

D. lpconflglflush

A. ipconfigtnushdns

95. Which of the following should be the same on all devices in the same subnet?

A. IPaddrass

B. Subnet mask

C. Hostname

D. FQDN

B. Subnet mask

96. Which of the following behaviors affects a WLAN but not a wired LAN?

A. Collisions

B. CRC failures

C. Interference

D. DNS issues

C. Interference

98. What are you hiding when you disable SSID broadcast?

A MAC address of the AP

B. IP address of the AP

C. Hostname of the AP

D. Network name

D. Network name

101 What file is used by Linux to mount partitions on boot?

A. fstab

B. grub

C. filo

D. remount

A. fstab

102. Which of the following is nat a best practice when manually rebuilding RAID arrays?

A. Clearly label the disks as you remove them and note tha corresponding port.

B. Identify, remove, and similarly label the faulty drive.

C. The drives should be placed back In the reversed order of remove Is.

D. If you are replacing a failed drive, ensure that it and the other drives are connected to the original port numbers.

C. The drives should be placed back In the reversed order of remove Is.

103 What command can be used in Linux to detect bad sectors?

A. fschk

B. badblocks

C. fstab

D. grub

B. badblocks

104 Which of the following must match when adding drives to a set of existing drives?

A. Speed

B. Capacity

C. Architecture

D. Vendor

C. Architecture

105 What command is used to connect users to shared drives?

A. net share

B. net use

C. mount

D. dmap

B. net use

106. Which of the following is used to manage storage in Windows Server 2012 R2 at the command line?

A. fdisk

B. format

C. diskpart

D. fstab

C. diskpart

110. In Linux the log file that contains general and system-related messages like any you would be interested in for storage issues is located where?

A. /var/messagas

B. /var/log

C. /log/messages

D. /var/log/messages

D. /var/log/messages

111. In Linux, which of the following can cause an inability to locate the operating system?

A. Missing NTLDR

B. Missing GRUB

C. Missing Bootmgr

D. Missing boot.ini

B. Missing GRUB

112. You receive the error message "Data error (cyclical redundancy check)" when attempting to access a logical drive. Which of the following is not a possible cause of his message?

A. Corruption of the drive

B. Bad sectors

C. Drive is encrypted

D. Drive is not formatted

D. Drive is not formatted

113 What command can be used to attempt a repair of the dda drive in Linux?

A. fschk -a /dev/dda

B. fdisk -s /dev/dda

C. fschk /dev/dda

D. fdisk /dev/dda

A. fschk -a /dev/dda

114 Which of the following commands in Linux can be used to diagnose a memory issue?

A. fschk

B. top

C. grub

D. grep

B. top

115 Which of the following combinations of factors indicates an 1/0 issue?

A. 1/0 is low, use of swap is low, and use of memory is high

B. 1/0 is high, use of swap is high, and use of memory is high

C. 1/0 Is high, use of swap Is low, and use of memory Is low

D. 1/0 is high, use of swap is low, and use of memory is high

D. 1/0 is high, use of swap is low, and use of memory is high

116 Which of the following is the most common cause of backup failures?

A. Tape drive failure

B. Human error

C. Software errors

D. SAN issues

B. Human error

118. Which of the following issues can be caused by a cable with a cut in the outer covering?

A. Crosstalk

B. EMI

C. Collisions

D. Poor performance

D. Poor performance

119. Which of the following will result from an L2 cache failure?

A. Increased performance

B. Increased use of swap

C. Degraded perfonnance

D. Depleted drive space

C. Degraded perfonnance

120. What type of terminator is used with SCSI drives operating in LVD mode?

A. Static

B. Dynamic

C. Active

D. Passive

C. Active