FINAL Audiology Exam

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Last updated 8:49 PM on 5/13/26
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50 Terms

1
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Auditory Processing Disorder (APD) can be diagnosed solely through standard pure-tone audiometry (true or false)

False

2
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Acoustic neuromas (vestibular schwannomas) most commonly arise from the schwann cells of which cranial nerve?

CN VII (vestibulocochlear nerve)

3
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Which type of skin cancer is the most common malignancy of the outer ear?

Squamous cell carcinoma

4
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Which of the following is a hallmark feature of central deafness?

Bilateral damage to the auditory cortex resulting in an inability to perceive sound

5
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Sudden idiopathic sensorineural hearing loss (SISNHL) is defined as a loss of at least ___ dB over ____ contiguous frequencies occurring within: (how long of a time period)

30db, 3 frequ, 3days (72 hours)

6
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Meniere’s disease is characterized by the classic (4) :

SN HL, tinnitus, aural fullness, and vertigo

7
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Autoimmune inner ear disease (AIED) typically presents with:

bilateral, progressive sensorineural hearing loss over weeks to months

8
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A Type B tympanogram with normal ear canal volume is most consistent with:

middle ear effusion

9
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A patient with acoustic neuroma would most likely present with:

Unilateral sensorineural hearing loss with poor word recognition disproportionate to the pure-tone loss

10
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Exostoses (surfer’s ear) of the ear canal are most commonly associated with repeated exposure to cold water and wind (T/F)

True

  • growths in the EAC and surgery required if get too big

11
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In ANSD(Auditory neuropathy spectrum disorder), the presence of otoacoustic emissions indicates that outer hair cell function is intact (T/F(

True

12
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What best explains why unilateral lesions above the cochlear nuclei rarely cause significant hearing loss?

The auditory pathway has bilateral representation (decussation) above the cochlear nuclei

13
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The most common pattern of genetic hearing loss is:

what percent of genetic hearing loss does it account for?

Autosmal recessive

25%

  • BOTH parents must carry gene

14
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“glue ear” is another term for:

mucous (chronic) otitis media

15
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Which maternal infection is historically the most well-known cause of congenital sensorineural hearing loss?

Rubella

16
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Necrotizing (malignant) external otitis is most commonly seen in:

Elderly diabetic or immunocompromised patients

17
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Which condition involves a narrowing of the ear canal without complete closure?

Stenosis

18
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Damage to the cochlear nuclei in the brainstem would most likely result in:

ipsilateral hearing deficits only

19
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A cholesteatoma is best described as:

An abnormal growth of keratinized squamous epithelium in the middle ear.

Highly erosive and can damage ossicles, tm and mastoid.

20
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Dipalacusis is a condition in which:

A single tone is perceived as 2 diff pitches in the 2 ears

21
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A patulous Eustachian tube is one that remains abnormally closed, leading to negative middle ear pressure (T/F)

False

22
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The term MADS (Multiple Auditory Dysfunction Syndrome) refers to:

Combined peripheral and central auditory deficitis with multiple overlapping symptoms

23
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The audiometric hallmark of noise-induced hearing loss (NIHL) is:

A notch at 3000-6000 Hz (often 4000 Hz)

24
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Treacher Collins syndrome is associated with which patterns of inheritance?

Autosomal dominant

25
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Mastoditis is a potential complication of untreated otitis media in which infection spreads to the mastoid bone (T/F)

True

26
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A temporary threshold shift (TTS) from noise exposure will recover fully given adequate time away from the noise (T/F)

True

27
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External otitis (swimmers ear) is an infection triggered by __________ exposure, leading to bacterial or fungal growth.

water

28
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The carhart notch, seen in otosclerosis, is an artifactual dip in bone conduction thresholds at approximately:

What is otosclerosis?

2000 Hz

An abnormal spongy bone grows around stapes footplate, fixing to the oval window

29
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Tympanoscierosis refers to:

SG: thickening and scarring of the tympanic membrane

calcium deposits on the tympanic membrane or middle ear structures

30
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Which congenital condition is characterized by a completely absent pinna?

Anotia

31
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Auditory neuropathy spectrum disorder (ANSD) is characterized by:

Present otoacoustic emissions with absent or abnormal ABR

32
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Paracusis Willsii, sometimes observed in otosclerosis, refers to:

An apparent improvement in hearing in noisy environments

33
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CHARGE Syndrome can include atresia of the ear canal as one of its features (T/F)

True

34
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Rh incompatibility between mother and fetus can cause sensorineural hearing loss due to damage to the cochlear nuclei from elevated bilirubin (kernicterus)

True

35
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What is the key diff between osteomas and exostoses of the ear canal?

Osteomas are typically unilateral and pedunculated; exostoses are bilateral and broad-based

36
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External otisis (swimmer’s ear) is most commonly caused by:

bacterial infection from trapped moisture

37
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Which stage of otitis media is characterized by a bulting, red tympanic membrane with purulent fluid?

Acute Suppurative stage

38
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Eustachian tube dysfunction results in which primary problem?

Inability to equalize middle ear pressure

39
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The term ‘dysacusis’ refers to:

a distortion in the perception of sound

40
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Auditory processing disorder (APD) is best described as:

a deficit in the neural processing of auditory information despite normal peripheral hearing

41
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microtia is characterized by a ___________ auricle

Underdeveloped / micro

42
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anotia referes to the complete _________ of the auricle

absence

43
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Eustachian Tube Dysfunction (ETD) produces a type ___ tympanogram, indicating _________ pressure in mid ear.

C, Negative

44
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Three stages of suppurative otitis media infection

Initial(neg pressure),

Acute suppurative (red, bulging),

Chronic suppurative stage(persistent infection)

45
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Dysacusis is a disorder characterized by difficulties in __________ _________ not just difficulty hearing sounds.

speech recognition

46
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Diplacusis is the perception of a single sound as having _______ _______

different pitches (or more than one pitch)

47
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Universal Newborn Hearing Screening (UNHS) uses tow primary methods:

OAEs and AABR

48
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EHDI timeline states: screening by ____ month, diagnostic confirmed by ____ months, intervention by ____ months

1, 3, 6

49
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the prevalence of severe to profound hearing loss in newborns is

1 in 1000

50
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BAHAs are for which hearing loss types? (3)

conductive, mixed, or single-sided deafness