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Flashcard study set covering IV therapy fundamentals, local and systemic complications, vascular access methods, and solution tonicity.
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What primary pathogens cause septicemia or sepsis according to the transcript?
Staph, strep, fungi, and gram-negative bacteria.
What is considered the hallmark sign of septic shock?
Hypotension.
What standard hang time limit do most facilities enforce for IV fluid bags to prevent bacterial growth?
No longer than 24 hours.
What unique murmur, described as sounding like a mill churning or a seagull cooing, is produced by an air embolism?
A mill wheel murmur.
Into what specific position should a patient be placed if an air embolism is suspected?
On their left side in Trendelenburg position.
What action should a patient be encouraged to perform during central line insertion or removal to prevent air intake?
The Valsalva maneuver (bearing down motion).
What immediate intervention should be taken if a peripheral catheter fragment breaks off during insertion (immediate discovery)?
Apply a tourniquet proximal to the insertion site.
What is the medical term for bruising caused by a vascular injury during IV insertion or removal?
Ecchymosis.
How long should direct firm pressure be applied following IV catheter removal to prevent hematoma or ecchymosis?
At least 1 to 2 minutes for standard removal, and 3 to 5 minutes if a hematoma develops (longer if the patient is on anticoagulants).
What key feature distinguishes extravasation from infiltration?
Infiltration involves non-vesicant fluid leaking into tissue, while extravasation involves a vesicant medication that causes severe tissue damage, blistering, and necrosis.
Why should an IV catheter NOT be removed immediately if extravasation occurs?
Because an antidote may need to be administered through the line or residual drug aspirated before removing the cannula.
What is thrombophlebitis?
Phlebitis (vein inflammation) accompanied by a blood clot inside the vein.
What instruction must be given to a patient if thrombophlebitis is suspected?
Instruct the patient not to massage the area.
What is the critical rule regarding an occluded IV cannula?
Never forcibly flush an occluded cannula.
What are the two common types of peripheral IV catheters, and how do they differ in duration?
Over-the-needle catheters (ONC), which thread a flexible cannula into the vein for multi-day use, and winged infusion sets (butterfly needles), where the needle remains in place for short-term use (up to an hour).
Where does the catheter tip sit for central venous access lines?
In the superior vena cava (SVC) of the heart or the right atrium.
What syringe size is mandatory when flushing a PowerPICC line to maintain proper pressure tolerance?
A 10 mL syringe.
Which lumen of a multi-lumen central line is closest to the insertion site and preferred for blood draws?
The proximal lumen.
What non-coring needle is required to access an implanted port (port-a-cath)?
A Huber needle.
What are CLABSIs?
Central Line-Associated Bloodstream Infections.
What are the three main purposes of IV therapy?
Maintenance, replacement, and restorative therapy.
What informal term is used to describe visible particulate matter floating in an IV solution bag?
Billy Bobs.
What is the osmolarity range for isotonic IV solutions?
Between 240 and 340 mOsm/L.
Why does D5W (5% Dextrose in Water) act as a hypotonic solution in the human body despite being isotonic in the bag?
The body rapidly metabolizes the dextrose, leaving behind free water that dilutes blood serum.
What is the only IV solution approved to run concurrently with blood products?
0.9% Sodium Chloride (Normal Saline).
Why is Lactated Ringer's (LR) classified as an alkalizing solution?
Because the lactate in LR is converted to bicarbonate by the liver.
Why must Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) be administered through a central venous line?
Because TPN is highly concentrated with an osmolarity often above 2500 mOsm/L, which would damage peripheral veins.