PSYCH ASS C2

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Last updated 7:05 AM on 6/14/26
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55 Terms

1
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A school psychologist administers a psychological test to a child. For the purposes of her report, she converts the testtaker's raw scores to percentiles. Age and grade norms are provided in the manual but she declines to cite them because

A. percentiles are all that are needed for accurate reporting of results.

B. age and grade norms tend to be misinterpreted by the general public.

C. she prefers to report results using only means and standard deviations.

D. that's what they're expecting her to do.

B. age and grade norms tend to be misinterpreted by the general public.

2
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Generally, what type of correlation exists between hours of study time spent studying for an achievement test and the student's performance on the test?

A. it depends what the subject of the test is

B. a negative correlation

C. a positive correlation

D. zero correlation

C. a positive correlation

3
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A correlation coefficient equal to -.98 would indicate

A. a weak inverse relationship between the two variables.

B. a weak direct relationship between the two variables.

C. a strong inverse relationship between the two variables.

D. a strong direct relationship between the two variables.

C. a strong inverse relationship between the two variables.

4
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Which of the following is TRUE of the Pearson r?

A. It has a distribution that approximates the tetrachoric r if the data are not linear.

B. It is legitimately used only when the two variables are linear.

C. Pearson actually had very little to do with its development.

D. It can never be larger than the Spearman rho if the data represent two true dichotomies.

B. It is legitimately used only when the two variables are linear.

5
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For individuals who are legally incapable of providing consent, we must

A. nethertheless explain appropriately to the client

B. obtain informed assent from them

C. obtain appropriate permission from their legally authorized person

D. all of the above

D. all of the above

6
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The researchers are in the middle of the experiment seeking to identify if noise affects concentration when suddenly the aircon turned off. If the experiment continues, what could be an extraneous variable in this case?

a. Noise

b. Concentration

c. Volume of the sound

d. Temperature

d. Temperature

7
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In test retest, carryover effects do not harm the reliability when

a. The changes in score happened on only a proportion of the test takers

b. The changes in score happened on all of the test takers

c. The changes in score affected only few test items

d. The changes in score affected all the test items

b. The changes in score happened on all of the test takers

8
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How will you establish criterion-related validity?

a. Administer your test followed by a standardized test of a construct that, based on literature, should be related to your own construct, then correlate the scores obtained. You then judge the strength of the validity by the strength of the correlation.

b. You let a number of experts examine your items to see if it was able to adequately tap on the construct that you are trying to measure.

c. You take the scores of your participants on your newly made integrity test then you check it against their occupational and police records.

d. You run factor analysis on your test to see if it measures the construct it was meant to measure.

c. You take the scores of your participants on your newly made integrity test then you check it against their occupational and police records.

9
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All students in a class failed the test administered by their teacher, as they found the test to be too hard. This is an example of

a. Floor effect

b. Ceiling effect

c. Distribution error

d. Strictness error

a. Floor effect

10
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Informed consent could be dispensed only when the study involves:

a. The researcher's students are the participants of the study

b. Young children, but only if a guardian is present

c. Survey questionnaires

d. Informed consent should never be dispensed

c. Survey questionnaires

11
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Which of the following is usually minimized when using split-half estimates of reliability as compared with test-retest or parallel/alternate-form estimates of reliability?

A. time and expense

B. reliability and validity

C. reliability only

D. time spent in scoring and interpretation

A. time and expense

12
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Internal-consistency estimates of reliability are inappropriate for

A. reading achievement tests.

B. scholastic aptitude/intelligence tests.

C. word processing tests based on speed.

D. tests purporting to measure a single personality trait.

C. word processing tests based on speed.

13
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As the reliability of a test increases, the standard error of measurement

A. increases.

B. decreases.

C. remains the same.

D. alternately increases, then decreases.

B. decreases.

14
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In order to remain consistent with a test's blueprint, a test administered on a regular basis is likely to require

A. item pool management.

B. base rate maintenance.

C. predictive validity certification.

D. None of these

A. item pool management.

15
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Before constructing a comprehensive final examination that covers everything you have studied since Day 1 of your course, your instructor reviews the objectives of the course, the textbook, and all lecture notes. Your instructor is clearly making a diligent effort to maximize the __________ validity of the final examination.

A. content

B. criterion-related

C. predictive

D. internal consistency

A. content

16
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Which is an example of a criterion?

A. achievement test scores

B. success in being able to repair a defective toaster

C. student ratings of teaching effectiveness

D. All of these

D. All of these

17
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Criterion contamination occurs when

A. the criterion measure is influenced by the predictor measure.

B. subjects talk to one another about the test.

C. the characteristic being measured occurs with low frequency in the group being studied.

D. All of these

A. the criterion measure is influenced by the predictor measure.

18
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What type of validity evidence BEST sheds light on how a shorter and less expensive test compares with a longer and more expensive one?

A. predictive criterion-related validity

B. concurrent criterion-related validity

C. content validity

D. construct validity

B. concurrent criterion-related validity

19
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A coefficient of correlation is calculated between Henry's score on a test of sociopathy and a clinician's rating of Henry on the variable of sociopathy. This coefficient of correlation might also be referred to as

A. an index of reliability.

B. an index of sociopathy.

C. a validity coefficient.

D. a content-related validity coefficient.

C. a validity coefficient.

20
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Employment test data suggests that an individual applicant is incapable of successfully performing a particular job. However, in reality, this individual would be very successful at the job. Such a scenario exemplifies what is meant by

A. a base rate.

B. a false positive.

C. a false negative.

D. a false expectancy.

C. a false negative.

21
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A test is considered to biased if

A. 50% of the test-takers fail the test.

B. one group, such as males, consistently performs better than another group, such as females.

C. a factor inherent in the test systematically prevents accurate measurement.

D. the test developer was found to harbor prejudice against some group.

C. a factor inherent in the test systematically prevents accurate measurement.

22
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A psychologist wants to determine the criterion-related validity of an intelligence test by determining how well it predicts a student's placement in a special class. If the psychologist used the intelligence test for both diagnosis and special class placement, that criterion would be said to be

A. irrelevant.

B. contaminated.

C. invalid.

D. negatively skewed.

B. contaminated.

23
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A test developer compares a student's performance on a newly developed math achievement test to the same student's performance on a well established math achievement test for the purpose of exploring the ________ validity of the new test.

A. content

B. concurrent, criterion-related

C. predictive, criterion-related

D. Construct

B. concurrent, criterion-related

24
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A test reviewer comes to the conclusion that a certain test is "a valid test." This means that the reviewed test has been shown to be valid for

A. a particular use with a particular population for the life of the test.

B. a particular use with a universal population of testtakers for a limited time.

C. universal use with all testtakers for the life of the test.

D. a particular use with a particular population at a particular time.

D. a particular use with a particular population at a particular time.

25
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The higher the item-difficulty index, the ________ the item.

A. easier

B. harder

C. more robust

D. less robust

A. easier

26
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In item analysis, the term item endorsement refers to the percent of testtakers who

A. responded correctly to a particular item.

B. indicate that they agree with a particular item.

C. passed the item on a pass/fail test of ability.

D. consented to answer an optional item.

B. indicate that they agree with a particular item.

27
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An item-discrimination index typically compares

A. high scorers' performances with low scorers' performances on a particular item.

B. medium scorers' performances with low and high scorers' performances on a particular item.

C. low scorers' performances with lower scorers' performances on a particular item.

D. one group of scorers' performances on the item with any other groups of scorers' performances on the same item.

A. high scorers' performances with low scorers' performances on a particular item.

28
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Which is true of item-characteristic curves (ICCs)?

A) For items that are fair to different groups of test takers, the ICCs for these groups should be significantly different.

B) Biased items exhibit different shapes of ICCs for different groups when the two groups do not differ in total test score.

C) A steep slope of ICC tells us that test takers of moderate ability have the highest probability of answering the item correctly.

D) They are used as an aid in determining the kurtosis of a distribution of test scores.

B) Biased items exhibit different shapes of ICCs for different groups when the two groups do not differ in total test score.

29
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All of the following are methods of evaluating item bias except

A) noting differences between the item-characteristic curves.

B) noting differences in the item-difficulty levels.

C) noting differences in the item-discrimination indices.

D) noting differences in validity shrinkage.

D) noting differences in validity shrinkage.

30
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Which of the following conditions may lead to the decision to revise a psychological or educational test?

A. item content, including the vocabulary used in instructions and pictures, has become dated

B. test norms no longer represent the population for which the test is designed

C. reliability and validity of a test can be improved by a revision

D. All of these

D. All of these

31
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A student raises concern that a professor has given different grades to two essay answers that are very similar. From a psychometric perspective, the student is expressing concerns about

A) criterion-related validity.

B) rater error.

C) test-retest reliability.

D) parallel forms reliability.

B) rater error.

32
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A student complains that a midterm examination did not include items from a particular in-class lecture. From a psychometric perspective, the students is expressing concern about the midterm's

A. test-retest reliability.

B. internal consistency reliability.

C. content validity.

D. cross-validation.

C. content validity.

33
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In a cumulative model of scoring applied to an ability test

A) the higher the total score, the higher the test taker is on the ability measured by the test.

B) the pattern of responses is critically important when judging the ability of the test taker.

C) comparisons of the test taker's performance on tests tapping similar abilities may easily be made.

D) All of the answers are correct.

A) the higher the total score, the higher the test taker is on the ability measured by the test.

34
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The higher the item-reliability index,

A. the higher the internal consistency of the test.

B. the lower the internal consistency of the test.

C. the more likely the testtaker is to miss the item.

D. the more likely the test developer is to eliminate the item.

A. the higher the internal consistency of the test.

35
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An analysis of item alternatives for a multiple-choice test can yield information about

A. the effectiveness of distracter choices.

B. which items are in need of revision.

C. testtaker response patterns.

D. All of these

D. All of these

36
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188.he think aloud test administration format

A. has examinees literally thinking aloud as they respond to each item on a test.

B. is a qualitative technique.

C. can help test developers understand how an examinee interprets particular items.

D. All of these

D. All of these

37
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Having a large item pool available during test revision is

A) a disadvantage due to the great expense of item development.

B) often a waste of time because many of the items are eventually deleted.

C) an advantage because poor items can be deleted in favor of the good items.

D) a great perk for test developers who are swimming enthusiasts.

C) an advantage because poor items can be deleted in favor of the good items.

38
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In creating a test designed to measure personality constructs, the test developer's first step would best be to

A) determine which items would lead to socially desirable responses.

B) create a large pool of potential items.

C) define the construct or constructs being measured.

D) select a representative sample of test takers for test tryout.

C) define the construct or constructs being measured.

39
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Criterion-referenced testing and assessment is most typically employed in

A) licensing for occupations and professions.

B) the diagnosis of reading difficulties.

C) competition for scholarships.

D) in situations where the criteria required for success are vague.

A) licensing for occupations and professions.

40
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You are interested in developing a test for social adjustment in a college fraternity or sorority. You begin by interviewing persons who had graduated from college after having been a member of a fraternity or sorority for at least 2 years. Which stage of the test development process BEST describes the stage that you are in?

A.the test-tryout stage

B.the test construction stage

C.the pilot work stage

D.None of these

C. the pilot work stage

41
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A strategy for cheating on an examination entails one testtaker memorizing items and later recalling and reciting them for the benefit of a future testtaker. This cheating strategy may be countered by

A. a computer-tailored test administration to each testtaker.

B. a computer-randomized presentation of test items.

C. Both a computer-tailored test administration to each testtaker and a computer-randomized presentation of test items.

D. None of these

C. Both a computer-tailored test administration to each testtaker and a computer-randomized presentation of test items.

42
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A math test developer is interested in deriving an index of the difficulty of the average item for his math test. As his consultant on test development, you advise him that this index could be obtained by:

A. identifying the item deemed to be average in difficulty and then deriving an item-difficulty index for that item.

B. averaging the item-difficulty indices for all test items and then dividing by the total number of items on the test.

C. dividing the total number of items on the test by the average item-difficulty index.

D. raising that very same question to a more knowledgeable test development consultant.

B. averaging the item-difficulty indices for all test items and then dividing by the total number of items on the test.

43
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The inspiration to create a new test may come from many varied sources. Thinking of the illustrative descriptions of inspiration cited in your text, which of the following is not a possible source of inspiration for the creation of a new test?

A) an emerging social phenomenon suggests the need for a psychological test

B) legislation has been passed ordering the creation of a new psychological test

C) a review of the literature on an existing test suggests a need for a new psychological test

D) a test developer thinks "there is a need for this sort of test"

D) a test developer thinks "there is a need for this sort of test"

44
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The tools of assessment used to make clinical judgments regarding the need for involuntary hospitalization

A. benefit society at large.

B. may cause some to be unjustly denied their freedom.

C. include tests, case history data, and interviews.

D. All of these

D. All of these

45
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A group of testtakers all fail to follow the directions for taking a

particular test. Which is TRUE?

A. The test results could still have great utility.

B. The test could still be psychometrically sound.

C. The test results could still be valid.

D. The reason for this must have to do with the test and not the testtakers.

D. The reason for this must have to do with the test and not the testtakers.

46
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The term multiple cut scores refers to

A. the use of two or more cut scores with reference to one predictor for the

purpose of categorizing testtakers.

B. the use of two or more cut scores with reference to a multi-stage

evaluation process that employs several predictors.

C. Both the use of two or more cut scores with reference to one predictor

for the purpose of categorizing testtakers and the use of two or more cut

scores with reference to a multi-stage evaluation process that employs

several predictors.

D. None of these

C. Both the use of two or more cut scores with reference to one predictor

for the purpose of categorizing testtakers and the use of two or more cut

scores with reference to a multi-stage evaluation process that employs

several predictors.

47
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The term used to describe the proportion of people in a population

who are distinctive due to their exhibition of a particular trait is

A.success rate.

B.target rate.

C.base rate.

D. cut rate.

C. base rate.

48
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"It's a method of setting cut scores that relies heavily on judgments made by experts." Which of the following is BEST described by this statement?

A. the known groups method

B. the Angoff method

C. discriminant analysis

D. the Brogden-Cronbach-Gleser method

B. the Angoff method

49
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Which of the following is synonymous with the term "utility" as used in Chapter 7 of your text?

A. consistency

B. truthfulness

C. usefulness

D. Accuracy

C. usefulness

50
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Costs associated with psychological or other testing typically include all of the following EXCEPT

A. administrator time.

B. use of test facility.

C. return on investment.

D. test administrator's time.

C. return on investment.

51
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Which of the following vignettes BEST illustrates a false negative?

A. Terry's MCAT scores are too low to be accepted to a U.S. medical school yet Terry goes on to win a Nobel Prize in medicine.

B. Maurice scores at the top of his class on tests of speed, strength, and agility and is very successful as a starting player on a college basketball team.

C. Lynn scores in the top 1% of the population on a test of cognitive ability yet flunks out of college within the first year.

D. Morgan does not get hired as a pharmacy technician after failing a polygraph test and is arrested several months later for drug possession.

A. Terry's MCAT scores are too low to be accepted to a U.S. medical school yet Terry goes on to win a Nobel Prize in medicine.

52
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Your textbook listed many frequently raised questions related to test utility. Which is NOT one of those questions?

A. Is the time it takes to administer this test worth it?

B. What is the practical value of using this test over another?

C. Is the cost of using this test worth the cost savings that may result?

D. Does this test measure what it purports to measure?

D. Does this test measure what it purports to measure?

53
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Which of the following is NOT a factor that affects a test's utility?

A. the test's validity

B. the test's publisher

C. the cost of the test

D. the benefits of the test

B. the test's publisher

54
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Employment test data suggests that an individual applicant is incapable of successfully performing a particular job. However, in reality, this individual would be very successful at the job. Such a scenario exemplifies what is meant by

A. a base rate.

B. a false positive.

C. a false negative.

D. a false expectancy.

C. a false negative.

55
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Which is an example of a false positive in the context of employee selection?

A. hired applicants who scored at or above the cut-off score on the employment test went on to fail on the job

B. hired applicants who scored at or above the cut-off score on the employment test went on to succeed on the job

C. rejected applicants who scored below the cut-off score on the employment test were rejected but would have gone on to succeed on the job had they been given a chance

D. rejected applicants who scored below the cut-off score on the employment test were rejected but went on to succeed at another, totally different job

A. hired applicants who scored at or above the cut-off score on the employment test went on to fail on the job