Lecture #176: Microbiology: Skin and Mucus Membrane Infections

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Last updated 5:52 PM on 5/10/26
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62 Terms

1
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What are the predominant normal flora organisms of the skin?

Gram-positive staphylococci and streptococci predominate on normal skin flora.

2
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What percentage of people carry Staphylococcus aureus on skin?

Approximately 30–60% of people carry S. aureus.

3
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Which Staphylococcus species colonizes nearly all skin?

Staphylococcus epidermidis colonizes nearly 100% of skin.

4
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What fungi are part of normal skin flora?

Candida albicans and dermatophytes.

5
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What are the basic characteristics of staphylococci?

Gram-positive, catalase-positive, non-motile cocci that are facultative anaerobes.

6
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What enzyme makes staphylococci catalase positive?

Catalase converts hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen.

7
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What culture conditions favor staphylococcal growth?

Blood agar, high NaCl concentrations, and temperatures between 18–40°C.

8
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What is MRSA?

Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus.

9
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What are the key identifying features of Staphylococcus aureus?

Coagulase-positive and beta-hemolytic on blood agar.

10
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What does coagulase do in S. aureus infections?

Converts fibrinogen to fibrin creating a fibrin shield that inhibits phagocytosis.

11
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How does the S. aureus capsule increase virulence?

It inhibits opsonization, phagocytosis, and complement-mediated leukocyte destruction.

12
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What is the function of Protein A in S. aureus?

Binds Fc portions of IgG to inhibit opsonization and phagocytosis.

13
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How does catalase benefit S. aureus?

Prevents oxidative killing by immune cells.

14
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What enzymes contribute to S. aureus spread?

Hyaluronidase, fibrinolysin, lipase, and nuclease.

15
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What does penicillinase do?

Opens the beta-lactam ring and inactivates penicillin.

16
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What toxins are produced by S. aureus?

Cytolytic toxins, exfoliative toxins, TSST, and enterotoxins.

17
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What is a furuncle?

An infected hair follicle commonly called a boil.

18
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What is a carbuncle?

A coalesced cluster of furuncles.

19
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What causes staphylococcal impetigo?

Toxin-mediated keratin separation causing flaccid blisters after skin injury.

20
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What is staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome?

A toxin-mediated disease in children causing blistering and peeling of squamous epithelium.

21
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What is the Nikolsky sign?

Horizontal pressure causing shearing off of superficial epidermis adjacent to lesions.

22
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What severe systemic infections can S. aureus cause?

Sepsis, endocarditis, pneumonia, osteomyelitis, empyema, and septic arthritis.

23
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How does toxic shock syndrome occur in S. aureus infection?

Superantigens trigger massive T-cell activation, cytokine release, capillary leak, and shock.

24
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What are classic findings in staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome?

Strawberry tongue and diffuse erythematous rash.

25
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What are the characteristics of Staphylococcus epidermidis?

Catalase-positive, coagulase-negative, novobiocin-sensitive, and non-hemolytic.

26
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Why is S. epidermidis clinically important?

It forms slime layers that adhere to prosthetic devices and catheters.

27
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What infection is associated with Staphylococcus saprophyticus?

UTIs in sexually active women.

28
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What are the basic characteristics of streptococci?

Gram-positive, catalase-negative cocci arranged in pairs or chains.

29
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What type of hemolysis is caused by Streptococcus pyogenes?

Beta hemolysis with complete clearing on blood agar.

30
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What is alpha hemolysis?

Incomplete hemolysis causing green discoloration on blood agar.

31
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What is gamma hemolysis?

No hemolysis on blood agar.

32
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What is the role of the streptococcal capsule?

Antiphagocytic protection.

33
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What is the function of M protein in GAS?

Antiphagocytic virulence factor and superantigen.

34
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What toxins are produced by streptococci?

Pyrogenic exotoxins including erythrogenic toxin.

35
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What causes the rash of scarlet fever?

Erythrogenic toxin encoded by a lysogenic bacteriophage.

36
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What enzyme causes beta hemolysis in streptococci?

Streptolysin O.

37
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What diagnostic tests are used for GAS pharyngitis?

Rapid antigen test, throat culture, and ASO antibodies.

38
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What is first-line treatment for GAS pharyngitis?

Penicillin.

39
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What does streptococcal impetigo look like?

Tense bullae with gold crusts.

40
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What are classic findings in scarlet fever?

High fever, sore throat, and sandpaper rash.

41
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What is erysipelas?

A rapidly progressive superficial skin infection with sharply demarcated raised borders.

42
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What is cellulitis?

A rapidly spreading painful infection of skin and subcutaneous tissue.

43
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What is necrotizing fasciitis?

A rapidly advancing, intensely painful soft tissue infection with bullae, crepitus, and sepsis.

44
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Why is necrotizing fasciitis a surgical emergency?

It requires emergent debridement to prevent septic shock and death.

45
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What post-streptococcal diseases can occur after GAS infection?

Rheumatic fever and post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis.

46
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What infections are caused by Streptococcus agalactiae?

Neonatal sepsis, meningitis, and postpartum sepsis.

47
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What diseases are associated with Streptococcus pneumoniae?

Pneumonia, sinusitis, otitis media, meningitis, and sepsis.

48
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What are viridans streptococci associated with?

Endocarditis and dental infections.

49
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What are the key features of Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

Gram-negative, motile, oxidase-positive, non-lactose fermenting bacillus.

50
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Where is Pseudomonas commonly found?

Moist environments.

51
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What toxin in Pseudomonas acts as an endotoxin?

Lipopolysaccharide (LPS).

52
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What does Exotoxin A of Pseudomonas do?

Inhibits protein synthesis.

53
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What infections are commonly caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

Burn infections, surgical wound infections, cystic fibrosis infections, and ecthyma gangrenosum.

54
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What organism is a major cause of acne in young adults?

Propionibacterium acnes.

55
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How does Propionibacterium acnes contribute to acne?

Combines with sebum to stimulate inflammatory tissue damage.

56
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What are the characteristics of Actinomyces israelii?

Gram-positive elongated rods that form filamentous structures.

57
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What conditions are associated with Actinomyces israelii?

Lumpy jaw, granulomatous sinusitis, pelvic abscesses, and sulfur granules.

58
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What organism causes Buruli ulcer?

Mycobacterium ulcerans.

59
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What are features of Mycobacterium ulcerans infection?

Acid-fast bacillus causing large erythematous ulcers in tropical aquatic regions.

60
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What virus causes fifth disease?

Parvovirus B19.

61
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What are the characteristics of Parvovirus B19?

Non-enveloped, icosahedral, single-stranded linear DNA virus.

62
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What is the classic rash of fifth disease?

Slapped-cheek rash.