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154 Terms

1
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A pharmaceutical powder is considered __________________.

a solid dosage form

2
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How would you define BCS Class I drugs?

High permeability, high solubility

3
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How would you express partition coefficient of a drug?

a) It is the angle created by a free-falling powder on a surface.

b) It is the rate of drug dissolution in a solvent.

c) It is the ratio of drug concentrations in a lipophilic solvent to an aqueous solvent.

d) It is the different crystal shapes of the drug.

e) It is the reciprocal of pH of the drug solution.

c) It is the ratio of drug concentrations in a lipophilic solvent to an aqueous solvent.

4
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How would you call the phenomenon where a drug compound exists in different crystalline forms? (BONUS QUESTION)

a) Isomerism

b) Racemization

c) Polymorphism

d) Diffusivity

e) Crystallography

C) polymorphism

5
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What is the nature of a protogenic solvent?

a) It accepts proton.

b) It accepts neutron.

c) It neither accepts nor donates protons.

d) It accepts or donates proton depending on the pH.

e) It donates proton.

E) it donates proton

6
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Calculate the pH of carbonic acid, a weak acid if the initial concentration is 0.06 M.

The pKa value of carbonic acid is 6.37.

a) 2.0

b) 3.8

c) 7.0

d) 7.6

e) 8.7

B) 3.8

7
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A conjugate acid is different from its conjugate base by a/an ___________.

a) Alpha particle

b) positron

c) electron

d) neutron

e) proton

E) proton

8
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Buffer capacity refers to which of the following?

a) The magnitude of the resistance of a buffer to pH changes

b) The amount of buffer needed to prepare 1 L of the solution

c) The reciprocal of the pKa of the conjugate acid in the buffer

d) The negative logarithm of the Ka of the conjugate acid in the buffer

e) The amount of buffer needed to neutralize an added acid

a) The magnitude of the resistance of a buffer to pH changes

9
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Flux is related to ____________.

a) viscosity

b) degradation

c) sedimentation

d) diffusion

e) adsorption

D) diffusion

10
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The rate of dissolution of a drug from a tablet formulation in dissolution medium is

3.3 mg/min. The surface area of the tablet and the thickness of the stagnant layer are

2 cm2 and 0.1 cm, respectively. If the diffusion coefficient of the drug is

1.1 10 3 cm2/min, calculate the solubility of the drug in the dissolution medium. Sink

condition is always maintained in the dissolution vessel (Concentration in bulk

solution can be considered zero.).

a) 15 mg/ml

b) 150 mg/ml

c) 250 mg/ml

d) 300 mg/ml

e) 600 mg/ml

B) 150 mg/ml

11
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You are working on a drug, which is susceptible to hydrolytic reaction. Which of the following would you use to improve stability of this drug?

a) Synergists

b) Glass equipment

c) Amber glass bottle

d) Preservatives

e) Insoluble form of the drug

E) insoluble form of the drug

12
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A free radical is a species that _________________________.

a) is highly stable

b) generally, initiates hydrolysis

c) is nonreactive

d) contains unpaired electron(s)

e) can be created in presence of nitrogen

d) contains unpaired electron(s)

13
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Which of the following plots would yield a straight line in first order kinetics?

a) C versus time

b) 1/C versus time

c) 1/C2 versus time

d) ln C versus time

e) C versus time

d) ln C versus time

14
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A drug formulation initially contained 225 mmol/liter of the drug. It was tested under

the accelerated stability testing and found to contain 100 mmol/liter after 45 days.

Calculate the half life of the degradation process if it follows first order kinetics.

a) 22.5 days

b) 36.0 days

c) 38.5 days

d) 40.5 days

e) 88.8 days

C) 38.5 days

15
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According to the FDA or ICH guidelines, a solid oral dosage form should be

evaluated for real time stability studies at ___________.

Page 4 of 12

a) 25 C

b) 25 C/60% RH

c) 40 C

d) 40 C/50% RH

e) 40 C/60% RH

b) 25 C/60% RH

16
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The scope for sterility tests for pharmaceutical products is required for

(BONUS QUESTION)

a) solid dosage forms

b) syrup dosage form

c) oral suspensions

d) parenterals

e) topical lotions

D) parenterals

17
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The boundary between two phases in a heterogeneous system is called a/an _______.

a) adsorbent

b) amphiphile

c) surfactant

d) shear plane

e) interface

E) interface

18
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How would you define (zeta) potential? (BONUS QUESTION)

a) The total number of potential determining ions in the tightly bound layer.

b) The total number of counterions in the diffuse layer.

c) The difference between the numbers of potential determining ion and

counterions in the electroneutral region.

d) The difference in potential between the true surface and the electroneutral

region.

E) The difference in potential between the shear plane and the electroneutral

region.

E) The difference in potential between the shear plane and the electroneutral

region.

19
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How would you express Newton's Law of Flow?

a) The rate of shear is proportional to viscosity.

b) Fuidity is proportional to the rate of shear.

c) Viscosity is proportional to shearing stress.

d) Kinematic viscosity is proportional to the rate of shear.

e) Shearing stress is proportional to the rate of shear.

e) Shearing stress is proportional to the rate of shear.

20
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The following rheogram belongs to a blank system?

Newtonian

Dilatant

Pseudoplastic

Plastic

Thixotropic

Plastic

21
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u This type of solution does not exist in reality.

a) Real solution

b) Unsaturated solution

c) Saturated solution

d) Supersaturated solution

e) Ideal solution

e) Ideal solution

22
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v Calculate the molarity of 10% (w/v) acetic acid solution in water. The molecular

weight of acetic acid is 60.

a) 0.97 M

b) 1.67 M

c) 1.87 M

d) 3.34 M

e) 4.97 M

b) 1.67 M

23
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Which of the following compounds is capable of showing hydrogen bonding?

a) CH3CH2OH

b) NaI

c) CH3OCH3

d) CH3-CH3

e) H2S

a) CH3CH2OH

24
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Which of the following is true for suspension as a dosage form?

a) Dose uniformity is assured.

b) Dosing flexibility is not possible.

c) It is a homogeneous system.

d) It contains smaller particles of the internal phase than colloids.

e) It can be used for depot therapy.

e) It can be used for depot therapy.

25
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Which of the following parameters is NOT included in the Stokes' equation?

a) Particle size

b) Viscosity of the medium

c) Density of the medium

d) Density of the particle

e) Particle shape

E) particle shape

26
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How does the rate of sedimentation change if the viscosity of the dispersion medium

is doubled?

a) 2 times decrease

b) 2 times increase

c) 4 times decrease

d) 4 times increase

e) 8 times increase

a) 2 times decrease

27
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Which of the following is a good viscosity modifier to prepare suspensions?

a) Sodium lauryl sulfate

b) Parabens

c) Sorbitol

d) Coloring agent

e) Purified water

c) Sorbitol

28
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What types of dosage forms are Ferrlecit® and Venofer®?

a) Colloids

b) Solutions

c) Tablets

d) Suspensions

e) Capsules

a) Colloids

29
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In which phase of clinical trial, post marketing surveillance is conducted?

a) Phase I

b) Phase II

c) Phase III

d) Phase IV

e) Phase V

d) Phase IV

30
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In a hospital, a pharmacist is the member of P&T committee. One of his/her roles is

to recommend dose and dosage form to achieve desired clinical outcome. An elderly patient has an ulcerative colitis (inflammatory bowel disease). The committee recommends hydrocortisone to treat the disease. Which of the following routes is most effective in achieving the desired clinical response?

a) Oral

b) Parenteral

c) Rectal

d) Nasal

C) rectal

31
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An oral solution has to be dispensed for a hydrophobic drug with high dose. Which

oral solution preparation would you select for such drug?

a) Syrup

b) Liniment

c) Elixir

d) Drops

C) elixir

32
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Which of the following cyclodextrins would you select to prepare intravenous

solution of a hydrophobic drug?

a) Alpha cyclodextrin

b) Beta cyclodextrin

c) Gamma cyclodextrin

d) Delta cyclodextrin

c) Gamma cyclodextrin

33
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Doctor recommends antiseptic solution to treat a mild throat infection. Which of the

following preparations would you choose to provide localized drug effect over the

throat region?

a) Mouthwash

b) Tincture

c) Spirit

d) Gargles

d) Gargles

34
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A pharmacist has recommended clindamycin semisolid preparation for facial acne. Which of the following semisolid preparations would you use?

a) Paste

b) Cream

c) Ointment

d) Collodion

B) cream

35
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Which form of the drug is present in a gel preparation? (BONUS QUESTION)

a) Solubilized form

b) Non-solubilized/particulate form

c) Partially solubulized and partially non-solubilized/particulate form

d) Lyophilized form

a) Solubilized form

36
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A semisolid preparation contains 30% suspended particles. The preparation

manufacturing method involves emulsification of the aqueous phase into the oil phase. Which of the following semisolid preparations does it represent?

a) Paste

b) Suspension

c) Ointment

d) Gel

a) Paste

37
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Which of the following suppository bases can sustain drug release or produces

incomplete drug release?

a) Oleaginous bases

b) Glycerated-gelatin

c) PEG

d) Fatty bases

b) Glycerated-gelatin

38
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Which of the following dosage forms avoid first pass metabolism completely?

a) Rectal suppositories

b) Pessaries

c) Sustained release tablets

d) Oral capsules

b) Pessaries

39
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A nasal solution contains 5% dextrose in its composition. What is the function of

dextrose in the nasal solution?

a) Flavoring agent

b) Sweetener

c) Viscosity enhancing agent

d) Humectant

b) Sweetener

40
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Which of the following mechanisms/features is present in olfactory region of nasal cavity to prevent drug entry to the brain?

a) Blood-brain barrier

b) P-glycoprotein efflux

c) Organic cation transporter

d) Amino acid transporter

b) P-glycoprotein efflux

41
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Which of following oral inhalation preparations requires forceful inhalation?

a) pMDI

b) Soft-mist inhaler

c) DPI

d) Nebulizer

C) DPI

42
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A patient is undergoing severe asthmatic attack. Which of following oral inhalation

preparations is most effective in managing this condition? (BONUS QUESTION)

a) pMDI

b) Soft-mist inhaler

c) DPI

d) Nebulizer

d) Nebulizer

43
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How many phases are present in a foam aerosol preparation? It contains a mixture of propane and isobutane as propellants.

a) Two phases

b) Three phases

c) One phase

d) One, two, or three phases depending on the composition of the foam

b) Three phases

44
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Which of the following is true for the type of emulsions?

a) W/o emulsions are preferred for oral route.

b) Generally, o/w emulsions are applied topically.

c) Parenteral route requires o/w emulsions only.

d) Milk is an example of w/o emulsions.

e) O/w emulsions include cold creams.

c) Parenteral route requires o/w emulsions only.

45
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What is the correct order of steps in determining the type of an emulsion using

dilution test?

a) Emulsion → Water added → No phase separation → Oil added → Phase

separation → Conclusion: O/W emulsion

b) Emulsion → Oil added → Phase separation → Water added → Phase restored

→ Conclusion: W/O emulsion

c) Emulsion → Water added → No phase separation → Oil added → No phase

separation → Conclusion: W/O emulsion

d) Emulsion → Water added → Phase separation → Oil added → Phase restored

→ Conclusion: O/W emulsion

e) Emulsion → Water added → No phase separation → Oil added → Phase

separation → Conclusion: W/O emulsion

a) Emulsion → Water added → No phase separation → Oil added → Phase

separation → Conclusion: O/W emulsion

46
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In a two-phase system containing oil and water, the phase in which the emulsifying

agent is more soluble typically becomes the external phase. This can be best

explained by ___________ theory of emulsification.

a) plastic or interfacial film theory

b) adsorption theory

c) electrical double layer theory

d) oriented-wedge theory

e) phase volume ratio theory

d) oriented-wedge theory

47
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Identify isotopes from the following pairs.

a) 137N and 126C

b) 23592U and 23692U

c) 5828Ni and 5828Ni

d) 8939Y and 8940Zr

e) 6229Cu and 8237Rb

b) 23592U and 23692U

48
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Radioactivity occurs mainly due to a change ___________.

a) outside atom

b) inside electron

c) in nucleus

d) in electron orbit

e) on atom surface

c) in nucleus

49
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Which of the following nuclear reaction represents a nuclear fission?

a) 23692U ➡️ 13153I + 10239Y + 310n

b) 23592U ➡️23190Th + 42He+2

c) 13153I ➡️ 13154Xe + beta-+ antineutrino

d) 6429Cu ➡️ 6428Ni + positron + neutrino

e) 6731Ga + e- ➡️ 6730Zn

a) 23692U ➡️ 13153I + 10239Y + 310n

50
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A chemical used in the diagnosis, cure mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease in man or animals is called a/an ____________.

a) drug

b) excipient

c) device

d) delivery system

e) drug product

A) drug

51
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When is the preformulation done in pharmaceutical industry?

a) Before drug discovery

b) Before formulation

c) After formulation

d) Right before manufacturing

e) After manufacturing

b) Before formulation

52
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Find the correct statement regarding partition coefficient.

a) It reflects lipophilic property of a compound compared to its hydrophilic

property.

b) It has practically no influence on drug absorption.

C) It has the unit of mole/liter or g/liter.

D) Water is used as the lipophilic phase.

E) It is expressed as "P".

a) It reflects lipophilic property of a compound compared to its hydrophilic

property.

53
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Angle of repose of a substance is a measurement of what?

a) Particle size

b) Crystallinity

c) Dissolution rate

d) Flowability

e) Stability

D) flowability

54
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What is the definition of a base in Brönsted-Lowry theory?

a) b) It accepts a hydroxyl ion.

It generates a hydroxyl ion.

c) It accepts a proton.

d) It accepts an electron pair.

E) It donates an electron pair

c) It accepts a proton

55
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If acetic acid is used as a solvent, it can be called a __________ solvent.

a) protophilic

b) protogenic

c) amphiprotic

d) aprotic

e) neutral

b) protogenic

56
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Which of the following is NOT characteristic to a zwitterion?

a) Its net electrical charge is positive.

B) Its concentration is the highest at its isoelectric point.

C) It carries both a positive charge and a negative charge.

d) It is an ampholyte.

E) It is amphoteric in nature.

a) Its net electrical charge is positive.

57
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The pH where the concentrations of conjugate acid and conjugate base species of a buffer system are equal is known as ___________.

a) pKa

b) isoelectric point

c) buffer pH

d) pKw

e) ionization point

a) pKa

58
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Calculate the pH of a buffer solution containing 0.005 M of a weak acid and 0.05 M of its conjugate base. The pKa of the weak acid is 6.9.

a) 5.9

b) 6.1

c) 7.9

d) 8.1

e) 9.2

c) 7.9

59
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What primary information is obtained from Fick's first law?

a) Loss of drug from tablet in unit time

B) Change in drug concentration with time at a specific location

C) Rate of drug degradation from unit volume of drug solution

d) Rate of drug diffusion through unit cross sectional area

e) Effect of partition coefficient on drug diffusion

d) Rate of drug diffusion through unit cross sectional area

60
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What does "D" refer to in Fick's first law of diffusion?

a) Partition coefficient

b) Permeability coefficient

c) Diffusion coefficient

d) Dissolution constant

e) Depth of the barrier

c) Diffusion coefficient

61
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Degradation of a drug due to water is called ___________.

a) racemization

b) photolysis

c) oxidation

d) dehydration

e) hydrolysis

e) hydrolysis

62
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Which of the following EXCEPT this can be used to minimize drug degradation by

oxidation?

a) Nitrogen in the bottle headspace

b) Antioxidant

c) Amber glass bottles

d) Chelating agents

e) Glass equipment

c) Amber glass bottles

63
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Racemic mixture of a compound contains which of the following?

a) Only dextro isomer

b) Only levo isomer

c) Mixture of dextro and levo isomers with more dextro

d) Mixture of dextro and levo isomers with more levo

e) Mixture of dextro and levo isomers at equal quantity

E) Mixture of dextro and levo isomers equal quantity

64
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The dimension of a zero order rate constant is ___________.

a) Time−1

b) Concentration−1 Time−1

c) Concentration

d) Concentration/Time

e) Concentration.Time

d) Concentration/Time

65
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The rate constant of a zero order degradation process is 5.56 × 10−9

moles/liter/minute. What would be the concentration remaining after 5 hours, if the initial concentration was 2.76 × 10−6 moles/liter?

a) 5.56 × 10−9 moles/liter

b) 5.32 × 10−8 moles/liter

c) 1.09 × 10−6 moles/liter

d) 2.73 × 10−6 moles/liter

e) 2.76 × 10−3 moles/liter

c) 1.09 × 10−6 moles/liter

66
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Identify the correct statement regarding half life.

a) It is constant for a zero order process.

b) In a second order degradation process, it changes with concentration.

c) At least 80% drug should be present at half life.

D) For a first order process, it is not constant.

E) It is half of the shelf life of a product.

b) In a second order degradation process, it changes with concentration.

67
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The half life of a drug undergoing first-order degradation is 2.65 days. Determine the shelf life of the drug product?

a) 0.4 day

b) 1.0 day

c) 4.0 days

d) 6.0 days

e) 8.8 days

a) 0.4 day

68
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The shelf-life expiration on the label of a product was shown to be May 2026. What

is considered the actual expiration date?

a) April 30, 2026

b) May 1, 2026

c) May 15, 2026

d) May 31, 2026

e) June 1, 2026

d) May 31, 2026

69
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According to the FDA or ICH guidelines, accelerated stability studies are most

commonly done in original sealed containers at _______________.

a) 25 °C

b) 40 °C

c) 25 °C/60% RH

d) 40 °C/60% RH

e) 40 °C/75% RH

e) 40 °C/75% RH

70
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What can be a possible unit for interfacial tension?

a) Dyne/cm

b) Pascal/cm

c) Newton/cm2

d) PSI/cm2

e) g/cm/sec

a) Dyne/cm

71
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Which one correctly describes desorption?

a) Adsorbate preferentially partitioned at the interface

B) Added molecules preferentially concentrate in the bulk of one phase

C) Includes both adsorption and absorption

d) Adsorbed molecules coming off from the adsorbent

e) When the added adsorbate accumulate at the surface of adsorbent through van

der Waals' forces

d) Adsorbed molecules coming off from the adsorbent

72
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How would you define ζ (zeta) potential?

a) The total number of potential determining ions in the tightly bound layer.

B) The total number of counterions in the diffuse layer.

C) The difference between the numbers of potential determining ion and

counterions in the electroneutral region.

d) The difference in potential between the true surface and the electroneutral

region.

e) The difference in potential between the shear plane and the electroneutral

region.

e) The difference in potential between the shear plane and the electroneutral

region.

73
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Which of the following is known as the "rate of shear" in Newton's Law of Flow?

a) F/G

b) dv/dr

c) 1/η

d) F'/A

E) η/p

b) dv/dr

74
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What happens when the shearing stress of a Newtonian system is increased?

a) Kinematic viscosity increases.

b) Fluidity increases.

c) Rate of shear increases.

d) System becomes thixotropic.

e) Yield value appears.

c) Rate of shear increases.

75
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Yield value is characteristic to which of the following systems?

a) Newtonian

b) Plastic

c) Pseudoplastic

d) Dilatant

e) Shear thickening

b) Plastic

76
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Various terminologies are used by USP to define solubility. Which of the following

terms is the "most soluble"?

a) Sparingly soluble

b) Practically insoluble

c) Freely soluble

d) Soluble

e) Slightly soluble

c) Freely soluble

77
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Calculate the molarity of 10% (w/v) acetic acid solution in water. The molecular

weight of acetic acid is 60.

a) 0.97 M

b) 1.67 M

c) 1.87 M

d) 3.34 M

e) 4.97 M

b) 1.67 M

78
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Which of the following forces is the weakest?

a) Ion-ion force

b) Ion-dipole force

c) Dipole-dipole force

d) Dipole-induced dipole force

e) Induced dipole-induced dipole force

e) Induced dipole-induced dipole force

79
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The solubility of a polar compound like sucrose in a non-polar solvent like oil is due to the presence of the following intermolecular force.

a) Ion-dipole force

b) Dipole-dipole force

c) Ion-induced dipole force

d) Dipole-induced dipole force

e) Induced dipole-induced dipole force

d) Dipole-induced dipole force

80
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Water is considered to be a ____________ solvent.

a) hydrophobic

b) lipophilic

c) polar

d) semi-polar

e) non-polar

c) polar

81
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Which of the following is NOT true regarding the factors affecting solubility of

drugs?

a) Polymorphs are likely to have different solubilities.

B) A dipole compound has good solubility in a polar solvent.

C) Solubility of a weakly acidic drug increases at higher pH.

D) The effect of temperature on solubility depends on the nature of the solute-

solvent interaction.

e) Crystalline form has more solubility than amorphous form.

e) Crystalline form has more solubility than amorphous form.

82
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The internal phase in a system is not visible in regular microscope, diffuse rapidly

and can pass through a regular filter paper. This dispersion is a ________________.

a) molecular dispersion

b) colloidal dispersion

c) suspension

d) emulsion

e) coarse dispersion

a) molecular dispersion

83
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Which of the following statements is consistent with deflocculated suspensions?

a) Particles settle rapidly.

b) Particles form loose aggregates.

c) Redispersion is easy.

D) Sediments may transform to hard cake.

e) Ultimate sedimentation volume is large.

D) Sediments may transform to hard cake

84
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A powder has a density of 1.3 g/ml and an average particle diameter of 2.5 micrometers. What will be the rate of settling of this powder in water according to Stokes' equation? The density and viscosity of water are 1 g/ml and 0.01 poise,

respectively. The acceleration due to gravity is 981 cm/sec2.

a) 1.04 × 10-7 cm/sec

b) 1.02 × 10-4 cm/sec

c) 4.43 × 10-4 cm/sec

d) 1.84 × 10-3 cm/sec

e) 4.09 × 10-1 cm/sec

b) 1.02 × 10-4 cm/sec

85
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What is the contact angle between the liquid droplet and the solid surface in the

following picture?

a) 0°

b) 90°

c) 180°

d) 270°

e) 360°

c) 180°

86
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Which of the following instruments or methods use rollers to crush the disperse phase in preparing lyophobic colloids?

a) Colloid mills

b) Ultrasonic treatment

c) Electric arc method

d) Chemical reaction method

e) Solvent change method

a) Colloid mills

87
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The number of monomers in each micelle of an association colloid is called the

_________________ of this colloid system.

a) aggregation number

b) association number

c) critical micelle concentration

d) degree of flocculation

e) colloid number

a) aggregation number

88
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Brownian movement is a type of __________ property of colloids.

a) optical

b) electrical

c) chemical

d) kinetic

e) magnetic

D) kinetic

89
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21CFR 210 and 211 regulations are required to be followed for ________.

a) IND

b) cGMP

c) NDA

d) IRB

b) cGMP

90
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In which phase of clinical trial post marketing surveillance is conducted?

a) Phase I

b) Phase II

c) Phase III

d) Phase IV

e) Phase V

d) Phase IV

91
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Which of following routes generally produce minimum systemic availability of the drug?

a) Topical skin

b) Sublingual

c) Intravenous

d) Subcutaneous

a) Topical skin

92
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Transdermal route is used for the following reasons EXCEPT this one.

a) To reduce the dose

b) To reduce adverse events

c) To eliminate first pass effects

d) To deliver the drug to systemic circulation

e) To improve bioavailability

e) To improve bioavailability

93
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Which of the following materials is the main component of collodions?

a) Nitrocellulose

b) PEG 3350

c) Magnesium citrate

D) cotton

a) Nitrocellulose

94
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Which of the following solutions can be considered as Alcohol, USP?

a) 70% alcohol

b) 75% alcohol

c) 90% alcohol

d) 95% alcohol

e) 100% alcohol

d) 95% alcohol

95
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Which of following excipients form micelles structure in a solvent?

a) Lactose

b) Mannitol

c) Paraben

d) Polysorbate 80

d) Polysorbate 80

96
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Which of the following excipients can be used as a complexing agent to enhance

water solubility a drug?

a) Polyethylene glyccol

b) Alpha-cyclodextrin

c) Sodium lauryl sulphate

d) Carbomer

e) Glycerin

b) Alpha-cyclodextrin

97
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Which of the following solubilization methods is NOT commonly used to increase solubility and dissolution rate of water insoluble drugs?

a) Particle size reduction

b) Cosolvency

c) Hydrotrophy

d) Surfactants

e) Complexation

c) Hydrotrophy

98
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Which of the following semisolid dosage forms can be applied over facial skin?

a) Ointments

b) Creams

c) Gels

d) Pastes

e) Creams and gels

e) Creams and gels

99
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Which of the following generally is NOT used as a solvent/continuous phase in gel

preparations.

a) Acacia

b) Water

c) Alcohol

d) Oil

a) Acacia

100
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PEG ointment, NF is a type of _________________base.

a) absorption

b) emulsifiable

c) water-removable

d) hydrocarbon

e) water-soluble

e) water-soluble