Exam 2 mental health

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Last updated 2:08 PM on 6/9/26
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163 Terms

1
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What are the four phases of the nurse-client relationship?

Pre-interaction, Orientation, Working, and Termination.

2
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What is the primary goal of the pre-interaction phase?

Self-awareness by reviewing the chart and identifying personal biases before meeting the client.

3
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During which phase are confidentiality and professional boundaries discussed?

Orientation phase.

4
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What is the primary goal of the orientation phase?

Establish trust, develop rapport, and set mutually agreed-upon goals.

5
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During which phase does the nurse provide teaching and encourage problem-solving?

Working phase.

6
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What occurs during the termination phase?

Review goals, discuss discharge plans, and allow the client to express feelings about ending the relationship.

7
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What is transference?

The client unconsciously transfers feelings from a past relationship onto the nurse.

8
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What is countertransference?

The nurse unconsciously transfers personal feelings onto the client.

9
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How should a nurse respond to countertransference?

Recognize it, seek supervision, and request reassignment if necessary.

10
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What does SOLER stand for?

Sit squarely, Open posture, Lean forward, Eye contact, and Relax.

11
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When is SOLER most appropriately used?

During routine therapeutic communication to demonstrate active listening.

12
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What does SURETY stand for?

Sit at an angle, Uncross arms and legs, Relax, Eye contact as appropriate, Touch cautiously, and trust Your intuition.

13
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When should SURETY positioning be used?

With clients who are paranoid, aggressive, or potentially violent.

14
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What is congruent communication?

When verbal statements match facial expressions and body language.

15
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What is incongruent communication?

When verbal and nonverbal messages do not match.

16
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Why is incongruent communication important to assess?

It may indicate hidden emotions or psychological distress.

17
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What does OARS stand for?

Open-ended questions, Affirmations, Reflections, and Summaries.

18
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Why are open-ended questions therapeutic?

They encourage clients to express thoughts and feelings in their own words.

19
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What is reflection?

Restating or mirroring the client's feelings to encourage exploration.

20
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What is clarification?

Asking the client to explain vague or confusing statements.

21
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What is paraphrasing?

Restating the client's message in different words to verify understanding.

22
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What is focusing?

Directing attention to an important topic introduced by the client.

23
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What is offering self?

Being physically and emotionally present with the client to provide support.

24
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What is therapeutic silence?

Allowing quiet time for the client to think and express feelings without interruption.

25
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What is presenting reality?

Acknowledging the client's perception while calmly stating what the nurse perceives as reality.

26
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How should the nurse respond to a client experiencing hallucinations?

"I understand you hear voices. I do not hear them. Can you tell me what they are saying?"

27
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What is empathy?

Understanding and communicating the client's feelings from the client's perspective.

28
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What is sympathy?

Feeling pity for the client and focusing on the nurse's emotions rather than the client's experience.

29
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Which is therapeutic: empathy or sympathy?

Empathy.

30
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Why are "why" questions considered nontherapeutic?

They often make clients feel defensive and judged.

31
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Why is false reassurance nontherapeutic?

It minimizes the client's feelings and discourages expression.

32
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Give an example of false reassurance.

"Everything will be okay."

33
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Why is giving advice nontherapeutic?

It reduces client autonomy and problem-solving.

34
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Why is changing the subject considered nontherapeutic?

It communicates that the client's concerns are unimportant.

35
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Why is arguing with a client inappropriate?

It damages trust and the therapeutic relationship.

36
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What type of listening is considered therapeutic?

Active listening.

37
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What does active listening involve?

Paying attention to verbal and nonverbal communication, clarifying, and summarizing the client's message.

38
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What are the four processes of motivational interviewing?

Engage, Focus, Evoke, and Plan.

39
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Which process of motivational interviewing takes the most time?

Engage.

40
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What does SMART goal setting stand for?

Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Realistic, and Time-bound.

41
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What stage of change is characterized by denial of a problem?

Precontemplation.

42
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What stage of change is characterized by ambivalence?

Contemplation.

43
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What stage of change involves making small preparations for change?

Preparation.

44
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What stage of change involves behavior change for less than six months?

Action.

45
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What stage of change involves maintaining behavior change for more than six months?

Maintenance.

46
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Can clients move backward in the stages of change?

Yes, progression through the stages of change is not always linear.

47
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What is the best response when a client asks, "Should I stop taking my medication?"

"What are your thoughts about stopping your medication?"

48
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What is the best therapeutic response to a grieving client who is crying?

Sit quietly with the client and offer your presence.

49
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What is the priority communication technique when a client expresses suicidal thoughts?

Use empathy and ask directly about suicidal thoughts, plan, and intent.

50
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What is the difference between anxiety and fear?

Anxiety is a vague response to an unknown or future threat, while fear is a response to a specific, present danger.

51
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When does anxiety become a disorder?

When it occurs at inappropriate times, becomes more frequent or intense, lasts longer, or interferes with daily functioning.

52
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Which anxiety level can improve learning and performance?

Mild anxiety.

53
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What are common signs of mild anxiety?

Restlessness, irritability, nail biting, finger tapping, and increased alertness.

54
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What is the hallmark sign of moderate anxiety?

Selective inattention.

55
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What are common symptoms of moderate anxiety?

Difficulty concentrating, headache, GI upset, urinary urgency, tremors, increased heart rate, increased respirations, and sweating.

56
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What nursing intervention is appropriate for moderate anxiety?

Provide a calm environment and redirect the client's attention.

57
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What characterizes severe anxiety?

A greatly narrowed perceptual field with inability to problem solve or learn.

58
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What is a hallmark symptom of severe anxiety?

A sense of impending doom.

59
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What nursing intervention is most appropriate for severe anxiety?

Stay with the client, reduce stimuli, and use simple, direct instructions.

60
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Which anxiety level may include hallucinations?

Panic.

61
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What is the priority nursing intervention during a panic attack?

Stay with the client and maintain safety while reducing environmental stimuli.

62
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Can clients learn during severe or panic anxiety?

No, learning is impaired during severe and panic anxiety.

63
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What often follows a panic attack?

Physical and emotional exhaustion.

64
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What are the three stages of General Adaptation Syndrome?

Alarm, Resistance, and Exhaustion.

65
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What occurs during the alarm stage of GAS?

The fight-or-flight response is activated and cortisol is released.

66
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What occurs during the resistance stage of GAS?

The body attempts to adapt while remaining alert.

67
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What occurs during the exhaustion stage of GAS?

The body's resources are depleted, increasing the risk of illness and mental health disorders.

68
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Which brain structure plays a major role in anxiety and fear?

The amygdala.

69
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What is the HPA axis?

The hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis that activates the body's stress response.

70
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What is the diathesis-stress model?

The theory that anxiety disorders result from a combination of genetic vulnerability and environmental stress.

71
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Name two modifiable risk factors for anxiety disorders.

Trauma, substance use, smoking, poor diet, or lack of exercise.

72
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Name two nonmodifiable risk factors for anxiety disorders.

Genetics, family history, female sex, or personality traits.

73
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What are Adverse Childhood Experiences (ACEs)?

Traumatic childhood events that increase the risk of anxiety and depression.

74
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Do positive childhood experiences completely eliminate the effects of ACEs?

No, they provide protection but do not erase the effects.

75
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What does transdiagnostic mean?

Anxiety symptoms occur across multiple psychiatric disorders.

76
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How long must excessive worry be present to diagnose Generalized Anxiety Disorder?

At least six months.

77
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What are the six symptoms associated with Generalized Anxiety Disorder?

Restlessness, fatigue, difficulty concentrating, irritability, muscle tension, and sleep disturbance.

78
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How many symptoms are required to diagnose GAD in adults?

Three or more.

79
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How many symptoms are required to diagnose GAD in children?

One or more.

80
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What is the defining feature of panic disorder?

Recurrent unexpected panic attacks with persistent worry or behavior changes afterward.

81
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How quickly do panic attacks reach their peak intensity?

Within minutes.

82
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Name four symptoms of a panic attack.

Palpitations, sweating, trembling, shortness of breath, chest pain, dizziness, nausea, chills, paresthesias, fear of dying, or fear of losing control.

83
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What is social anxiety disorder?

Intense fear of being judged or embarrassed in social situations.

84
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What is a specific phobia?

Intense fear of a specific object or situation that causes immediate anxiety.

85
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What is agoraphobia?

Fear of situations where escape may be difficult or help unavailable.

86
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What is separation anxiety disorder?

Developmentally inappropriate fear of being separated from an attachment figure.

87
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What is selective mutism?

A child consistently fails to speak in certain social settings despite speaking normally in others.

88
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What are obsessions?

Unwanted, intrusive thoughts, urges, or images that cause distress.

89
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What are compulsions?

Repetitive behaviors or mental acts performed to reduce anxiety caused by obsessions.

90
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Do clients with OCD usually recognize their thoughts and behaviors are unreasonable?

Yes, most clients have insight that their behaviors are irrational.

91
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How much time must obsessions or compulsions consume to meet OCD criteria?

More than one hour per day or cause significant distress.

92
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Give an example of an obsession.

Fear of contamination or germs.

93
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Give an example of a compulsion.

Repeated handwashing or checking locks.

94
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What is body dysmorphic disorder?

Preoccupation with perceived flaws in physical appearance.

95
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What is hoarding disorder?

Persistent difficulty discarding possessions that results in excessive clutter.

96
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What is trichotillomania?

Recurrent hair pulling that causes hair loss.

97
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What is excoriation disorder?

Recurrent skin picking that causes skin lesions.

98
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Are trichotillomania and excoriation considered self-harm behaviors?

No, they are obsessive-compulsive related disorders.

99
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What are adaptive coping strategies for anxiety?

Exercise, mindfulness, therapy, relaxation techniques, humor, social support, and deep breathing.

100
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What are maladaptive coping strategies?

Avoidance, withdrawal, alcohol misuse, and substance abuse.