CDC 4Y051N

Who appoints the Special Consultant for Infection Control?

USAF Surgeon General.

Who develops and publishes guidelines for the USAF Dental Infection Control Program?

Dental Infection Control Officer.

OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens Standard is

A federal rule that sets forth specific requirements to prevent the transmission of bloodborne diseases to employees.

When must the exposure control plan be reviewed, updated, and who should have access to the plan?

At least annually; All employees & OSHA.

The minimum requirements of the training program on controlling occupational exposure to bloodborne pathogens in dentistry are determined by:

OSHA.

Following the post exposure evaluation how many days does the employer have to provide the employee with a copy of the healthcare professionals written opinion?

15 days.

How many years does OSHA require medical records to be maintained on employees with occupational exposure, & from what date of employment is this based?

30 years; last date of employment

Training and medical records must be made available to:

Employees and the secretary of labor, OSHA.

Droplets of saliva borne microorganisms and debris that are usually visible are known as:

Spatter.

Having the patient use am antiseptic mouthwash before treatment can reduce the bacterial count by:

98%

Microbial levels in the dental unit water supply my be reduced by flushing the air/water lines for

20-30 seconds between patients.

OSHA requires that a HEP B vaccination be made available to every employee whose job classification or tasks result in occupational exposure within how many days of initial assignment?

10 working days

The HEP B vaccination series must be administered according to the current guidelines:

And future routine booster dose recommendations of the US Public Health Service

The application of standards of infection control based on the assumption that all patients are potential carriers of infectious diseases best describes

Standard precautions.

What types of controls applied to the dental room isolates or removes the bloodborne pathogens hazard from healthcare workers?

Engineering.

What types of controls reduce the likelihood of exposure by altering the manner in which the task is performed?

Work Practice.

Gloves are required to be worn

When hand contact with blood, saliva, mucus membrane or surfaces contaminated with body fluids or secretions are reasonably anticipated.

Who must wear protective eyewear?

The dental team & the patient

OSHA Act requires the employer to launder general work clothes

When visibly soiled with blood, OPIM, or when worn without additional PPE for procedures where exposure to blood or OPIM has occurred.

What type of clothing must be worn during ultrasonic scaling procedures or manual decontamination of dental instruments where spatter or aerosols may be generated?

Long sleeved clothing/gown in combination with shoe and head covers.

What must be done before equipment that has had contact with blood or OPIM is serviced on site or shipped to another facility

Decontaminated to extent feasible or label as biohazard indicating which parts could not be decontaminated

How must contaminated disposable sharps be discarded?

All items must be disposed of immediately or as soon as feasible placed in a closable puncture/leak proof containers colored red or labeled/marked Biohazard.

What items are considered as contaminated laundry?

All protective clothing and only contaminated clinical attire.

The environmental surfaces can be divided into how many surfaces?

Two.

What is the first step in creating a safe treatment environment?

Cleaning.

What level of microorganisms has the lowest resistance level to disinfecting agents?

Vegetative bacteria.

What is the most resistant form of life known?

Bacterial Endospores.

Which of the following is not a chemical disinfectant level?

Moderate.

Agents which inhibit or suppress future bacterial growth but do not actually destroy all bacteria present on the affected surface are termed

Bacteriostatic.

High level disinfectants are effective against viruses similar to the Hep virus,

Vegetative bacteria, fungi, tubercle bacillus, an bacterial spores.

What level of disinfectant is used on semi-critical surfaces that are not covered with a protective barrier?

Intermediate.

Other than detergents, the disinfectants included in the low level group are quaternary ammonium compounds,

And simple phenolic.

Which of the following is not a property of an ideal disinfectant?

A residual effect of treated surfaces that is activated when surfaces are dry.

When chemicals coagulate and combine with proteins and produce barriers or films about the microorganisms that inhibit penetration of the disinfectant into the bacterial cells is the best description of which effectiveness factor?

Organic matter.

Which of the following takes into account a dilution factor caused by added water from wet instruments, effects of soap and other detergents and evaporation?

Reuse life.

Which of the following are currently listed by EPA and the ADA council on dental therapeutics as acceptable intermediate hospital surface disinfectants?

Iodophors, synthetic phenolic, and chlorine containing compounds.

Which fluid is recommended to dilute Iodophors prior to use?

Distilled or softened water.

When properly diluted with water which chemical agents at in a synergistic manner to create a broad antimicrobial spectrum including tuberculocidal activity?

Synthetic phenolics.

Which chemical agents are not considered effective in the presence of tissue proteins?

Alcohols.

When must you clean and disinfect previously covered surfaces between patients?

Only when the integrity of the physical barriers are compromised or when the surface is visibly soiled.

What methods of heat sterilization are currently accepted in USAF dental clinics?

Steam under pressure, Gravity displacement or prevacuum, and dry heat.

How do you sterilize items which cannot withstand heat?

Ethylene Oxide.

The crucial components of the steam under pressure process are

Steam pressure and exposure time.

To properly load the chamber of the gravity displacement unit

Place all packages on edge, with large packs at the bottom and small on the upper layer.

What sterilization process is accomplished after washer sterilizer cycle?

Terminal Sterilization.

What temperature and time is required for sterilization in a dry heat oven?

320 Fahrenheit for 2 hours or 340 Fahrenheit for 1 hour.

Sterilization using the rapid heat transfer method requires what temperature?

375 Fahrenheit for 12 min.

When exposed to minimal heat and pressure conditions of sterilization what changes colors and indicates whether or not the packs have been processed?

Chemical indicators.

How often must biological spore monitoring be performed if implantable devices are in the load?

Every cycle.

The ultrasonic cleaner is located in which area

Decontamination.

When can ultrasonic instrument decontamination be performed in the dental treatment room?

Never.

Which of the following does not apply to the proper operation of ultrasonic cleaners?

Use of a disinfectant, plain water, or soap for the solution.

Non-heat stabilized nylon tubing is designed for which sterilization method?

Steam.

What sterilization method is use for aluminum foil and closed metal trays?

Dry heat.

Freshly sterilized items are

Never placed on metal or cold surfaces to dry.

Stored sterile items must be re-sterilized if the safe storage has expired,

The wrapper becomes wet, touches the floor, or if there is any question of contamination.

What methods can be used to recap needles?

Scoop technique and recapping device.

In addition to cleaning what must be done with all hand pieces including slow speed?

Heat sterilize.

When do digital radiology supporting devices need barrier protection?

When contacted or contaminated by spatter.

You clean the air techniques imaging plates with

100% cotton gauze and isoprophyl alcohol.

Where should initial cleaning and rinsing of an impression be done?

DTR

What impression materials can be disinfected by immersion with any of the accepted products without affecting accuracy and detail reproduction?

Polysulfide and addition silicone.

One type of image receptor for digital radiography is

An image plate.

What is placed on the image scanner for processing?

Image plate.

Which of the following is an advantage of digital radiography?

Adjustments to the contrast or density can be accomplished.

A digital system key element is the

X-ray machine.

Which of the following is a very important step before using a digital system for the first time?

Refer to the manufacturers instructions.

What allows the dentist to view areas of the teeth?

Digital image.

Which of the following requires a processor unit to scan the digital image into the computer?

PSP Plate.

How many types of radiation are there?

3.

Which xray characteristic relates to the degree of darkness on an image?

Density.

Which xray characteristic refers to the images darkness and lightness?

Contrast.

Which xray characteristic is dense and does not permit the passage of radiation?

Radiopaque.

How many planes of reference are used for proper patient positioning?

2.

Which plane of reference should be parallel to the floor with the mouth slightly open for all max and mand exposures?

Second plane.

In digital radiography what captures an image and transmits it to the computer?

Sensors.

What is the name of the electronic processor used to produce an image from the PSP plates?

Scan-X.

Which is not a step in exposing and downloading an image using a digital sensor?

Double click on patients name.

When mounting digital images, what should be placed toward the incisal edge or occlusal surface so that the images do not appear backwards?

Letter a.

How should the teeth appear in the mount?

Same order as in the mouth.