REVIEW MICROBIOLOGY from FIRST AID USMLE

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Last updated 5:24 AM on 11/28/24
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200 Terms

1
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What substance does Bacillus anthracis capsule contain?

D-glutamate

2
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Which bacteria lacks a cell wall?

Mycoplasma

3
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What is Loeffler’s media used for?

Culturing Corynebacterium diphtheriae

4
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Name some obligate aerobes.

Nocardia, Pseudomonas, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Bacillus

5
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Which organism poses a risk to asplenic individuals?

Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Neisseria meningitidis

6
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What bacteria secretes IgA protease?

Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae type B, Neisseria

7
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What is the mode of action of endotoxins?

Induces TNF and IL-1 production

8
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What causes rice water diarrhea?

Vibrio cholerae

9
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What causes whooping cough?

Bordetella pertussis

10
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Which toxin is produced by Clostridium perfringens?

Alpha toxin (lecithinase)

11
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What is the causative agent of toxic shock syndrome?

Staphylococcus aureus

12
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In which bacterial growth phase are spores formed?

Stationary phase

13
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What is the term for bacteria without plasmids?

F-

14
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Which organism is catalase positive and coagulase sensitive?

Staphylococcus aureus

15
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What causes otitis media in children?

Streptococcus pneumoniae

16
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What causes meningitis in babies?

Streptococcus agalactiae

17
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What is rusty sputum associated with?

Streptococcus pneumoniae

18
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What component of normal flora is Staphylococcus epidermidis?

Skin flora

19
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Which normal flora causes dental caries?

Streptococcus mutans

20
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Bull neck is seen in which infection, and what is the causative agent?

Diphtheria - Corynebacterium diphtheriae

21
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Which toxins of Clostridium botulinum lead to floppy baby syndrome?

Botulinum toxins

22
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Sulfur granules in sinus tracts are associated with which organism?

Actinomyces israelii

23
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What is the prophylactic treatment for Mycobacterium avium intracellulare?

Azithromycin

24
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What is another name for Hansen’s disease?

Leprosy

25
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Which drug is used for prophylaxis in Haemophilus influenzae?

Rifampin

26
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How is Legionella pneumonia clinically detected?

Presence of antigen in urine

27
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Blue-green pigment is produced by the toxins of which bacterium?

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

28
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What is the most common serotype causing hemolytic uremic syndrome?

O157:H7

29
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What causes red currant jelly sputum?

Klebsiella

30
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What causes mesenteric adenitis?

Yersinia enterocolitica

31
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What are the bacteria with a question mark-shaped appearance?

Leptospira interrogans

32
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Abdominal rose spots, fever, and headache are features of which condition?

Salmonella typhi infection (Typhoid fever)

33
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What is the bulls-eye rash associated with?

Lyme disease

34
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Saddle nose and Hutchinson teeth are features of which disease?

Congenital syphilis

35
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What is the causative agent of Q fever?

Coxiella burnetii

36
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Clue cells and a fishy-smelling discharge are associated with which infection?

Gardnerella vaginalis (Bacterial vaginosis)

37
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What assay is used in the diagnosis of rickettsial infections?

Latex agglutination

38
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Palm and sole rash is seen in infections caused by which viruses?

Coxsackievirus A, Rocky Mountain spotted fever, and syphilis

39
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What causes Reiter’s syndrome?

Chlamydia trachomatis

40
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Which bacterium is the only one having cholesterol?

Mycoplasma pneumonia

41
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What is the term for budding yeast with a captain wheel formation?

Paracoccidioidomycosis

42
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What causes a spaghetti and meatball appearance in a KOH prep?

Tinea versicolor

43
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Which fungus has septate hyphae branching at acute angles?

Aspergillus fumigatus

44
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Which fungal disease is most commonly seen in DKA and leukemic patients?

Mucor and Rhizopus

45
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What is Rose Gardener disease associated with?

Sporothrix schenckii

46
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Severe diarrhea in AIDS is often caused by which parasite?

Cryptosporidium

47
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What is the classic triad associated with Toxoplasma gondii?

Chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus, and intracranial calcification

48
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How does Naegleria fowleri enter the brain?

Cribriform plate

49
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Which disease is caused by the kissing bug?

Chagas disease

50
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What is the treatment for Leishmania donovani?

Sodium stibogluconate

51
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In Plasmodium malaria, what is the duration of the cycle in hours?

72 hours

52
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What is the Scotch tape test used for?

Enterobius vermicularis (pinworm)

53
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Which organism, carried by female Anopheles, causes blockage of lymphatic vessels?

Wuchereria bancrofti

54
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What causes a Swiss cheese appearance in the brain?

Neurocysticercosis - Taenia solium

55
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River blindness is caused by which parasite?

Onchocerca volvulus

56
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What disease of the bladder is caused by Schistosoma hematobium?

Squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder

57
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Which agent causes pipestem cirrhosis?

Schistosoma mansoni

58
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What do surgeons inject to kill daughter cells of a hydatid cyst?

Ethanol

59
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Which organism is found in macrophages containing amastigotes?

Leishmania donovani

60
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Cholangiocarcinoma is associated with which organism?

Clonorchis sinensis

61
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What drugs are used against Staphylococcus aureus?

Methicillin, Nafcillin

62
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Name a beta-lactamase inhibitor.

Clavulanic acid, Sulbactam, Tazobactam

63
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What causes red man syndrome?

Vancomycin

64
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What is the drug of choice for meningitis and gonorrhea?

Ceftriaxone

65
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Imipenem is always administered with what?

Cilastatin

66
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What is the main side effect of aminoglycosides?

Nephrotoxicity, Ototoxicity, Teratogenicity

67
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Tetracycline must not be taken with what?

Milk, antacids, and iron-containing preparations

68
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What is the drug of choice for atypical pneumonia?

Macrolides

69
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Gray baby syndrome is a side effect of which drug?

Chloramphenicol

70
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Trimethoprim inhibits bacterial what?

Dihydrofolate reductase

71
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What is the only agent used as solo prophylaxis against TB?

Isoniazid

72
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Hyperuricemia is a side effect of which anti-TB drug?

Pyrazinamide

73
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What is the prophylaxis for recurrent UTI?

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

74
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Which anti-TB drug induces the P-450 system?

Rifampin

75
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Soap bubble lesions in the brain are seen in which infection?

Cryptococcus neoformans

76
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Oral thrush in an immunocompromised patient is caused by?

Candida albicans

77
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Flask-shaped ulcer on histology is seen in infection by which organism?

Entamoeba histolytica

78
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African sleeping sickness is transmitted by?

Tsetse fly

79
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What does the chlamydial cell wall lack?

Muramic acid

80
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Condylomata lata is seen in which syphilis stage?

Secondary

81
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What causes Lyme disease?

Borrelia burgdorferi

82
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What is a common antecedent of Guillain-Barré syndrome?

Campylobacter jejuni

83
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Tumbling motility is characteristic of which bacterium?

Listeria monocytogenes

84
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What temperature and duration must be used to autoclave and kill spores by steaming?

121°C for 15 minutes

85
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Which bacteria exhibit a club shape?

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

86
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What does tetanospasmin prevent the release of?

Inhibitory neurotransmitters in the spinal cord

87
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Which protein is involved in opsonization and phagocytosis?

Protein A

88
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Lowenstein-Jensen agar medium is used for what organism?

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

89
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Silver stain is used for which microorganisms?

Legionella and fungi

90
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What is the treatment for Chagas disease?

Nifurtimox

91
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What is the term for the exchange of genes between two chromosomes by crossing over within regions of significant base sequence homology?

Recombination

92
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Except for parvovirus, are all DNA viruses double-stranded or single-stranded?

Double-stranded

93
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Except for retrovirus, are all viruses haploid or diploid?

Haploid

94
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What causes slapped cheeks syndrome?

Parvovirus B19

95
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Owls eyes inclusions are seen in infections with which virus?

Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

96
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Atypical lymphocytes are seen in infections with which virus?

Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)

97
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What is the number one cause of fatal diarrhea in children?

Rotavirus

98
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In picornaviruses, which are not retroviruses?

Rhinoviruses

99
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What transmits the yellow fever virus?

Aedes mosquito

100
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What is the largest DNA virus?

Poxvirus