anemia pharmaco slaytı

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Last updated 2:13 PM on 6/6/26
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92 Terms

1
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What is anemia?

A reduction in hemoglobin, hematocrit, or red blood cell mass resulting in decreased oxygen-carrying capacity.

2
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What is the WHO definition of anemia in men?

Hb <13 g/dL

3
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What is the WHO definition of anemia in women?

Hb <12 g/dL

4
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What are the three major mechanisms of anemia?

Decreased RBC production, increased RBC destruction, blood loss.

5
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What does MCV <80 fL indicate?

Microcytic anemia.

6
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What does MCV >100 fL indicate?

Macrocytic anemia.

7
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What type of anemia is iron deficiency anemia?

Microcytic hypochromic anemia.

8
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What does MCHC indicate?

Hemoglobin concentration within RBCs.

9
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What does a high reticulocyte count suggest?

Hemolysis or acute blood loss.

10
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What does a low reticulocyte count suggest?

Decreased RBC production.

11
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What is ferritin?

The major iron storage protein.

12
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What is transferrin?

The iron transport protein in plasma.

13
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What is TIBC?

Total iron-binding capacity of transferrin.

14
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How is ferritin affected in iron deficiency anemia?

Decreased.

15
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How is TIBC affected in iron deficiency anemia?

Increased.

16
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How is ferritin affected in anemia of inflammation?

Normal or increased.

17
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How is TIBC affected in anemia of inflammation?

Normal or decreased.

18
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What is hepcidin?

The master regulator of iron metabolism.

19
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Where is hepcidin produced?

Liver.

20
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What does hepcidin bind to?

Ferroportin.

21
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What happens when hepcidin increases?

Decreased iron absorption and iron release from stores.

22
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When does hepcidin increase?

Inflammation and iron overload.

23
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When does hepcidin decrease?

Iron deficiency and increased erythropoiesis.

24
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What is the mechanism of anemia of inflammation?

IL-6 ↑ → Hepcidin ↑ → iron trapped in storage sites.

25
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Where is iron mainly absorbed?

Duodenum and proximal jejunum.

26
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Which form of iron is best absorbed?

Fe²⁺ (ferrous iron).

27
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What are the main causes of iron deficiency anemia?

Blood loss, increased demand, decreased intake, malabsorption.

28
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Which oral iron preparations are commonly used?

Ferrous sulfate, ferrous fumarate, ferrous gluconate.

29
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What enhances iron absorption?

Vitamin C (ascorbic acid).

30
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What reduces iron absorption?

Tea, coffee, calcium-containing products.

31
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What are the most common adverse effects of oral iron?

Nausea, vomiting, constipation, diarrhea, dark stools.

32
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What is the earliest sign of response to iron therapy?

Reticulocytosis.

33
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When is reticulocyte response seen after iron therapy?

7–10 days.

34
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When does hemoglobin usually increase after iron therapy?

2–4 weeks.

35
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Why is iron therapy continued after Hb normalizes?

To replenish iron stores.

36
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What are indications for IV iron therapy?

Oral intolerance, malabsorption, CKD, need for rapid replacement.

37
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Which route is preferred for parenteral iron?

Intravenous infusion.

38
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Why is IM iron generally avoided?

Pain, local reactions, skin staining.

39
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Which IV iron preparation has the highest hypersensitivity risk?

Iron dextran.

40
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What is the first-line treatment for hereditary hemochromatosis?

Therapeutic phlebotomy.

41
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Name three iron chelators.

Deferoxamine, deferasirox, deferiprone.

42
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What are the most common causes of megaloblastic anemia?

Vitamin B12 deficiency and folate deficiency.

43
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What is the classic blood smear finding in megaloblastic anemia?

Hypersegmented neutrophils.

44
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How is homocysteine affected in vitamin B12 deficiency?

Increased.

45
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How is methylmalonic acid (MMA) affected in vitamin B12 deficiency?

Increased.

46
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How is MMA affected in folate deficiency?

Normal.

47
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What is the most important distinguishing feature of vitamin B12 deficiency?

Neurologic manifestations.

48
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Do neurologic symptoms occur in folate deficiency?

No.

49
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What causes pernicious anemia?

Autoimmune destruction of parietal cells leading to intrinsic factor deficiency.

50
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Which cells produce intrinsic factor?

Gastric parietal cells.

51
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Where is vitamin B12 absorbed?

Terminal ileum.

52
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What neurologic findings are seen in vitamin B12 deficiency?

Paresthesia, ataxia, loss of vibration sense.

53
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What is the preferred treatment for severe vitamin B12 deficiency?

Parenteral vitamin B12.

54
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What is the antidote for methotrexate toxicity?

Leucovorin (folinic acid).

55
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What is the primary role of folate?

DNA synthesis.

56
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What is the active form of folate?

Tetrahydrofolate (THF).

57
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What is the daily folate requirement in adults?

400 mcg/day.

58
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What is the daily folate requirement during pregnancy?

600 mcg/day.

59
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Why is folic acid given during pregnancy?

To prevent neural tube defects.

60
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Name two neural tube defects.

Spina bifida and anencephaly.

61
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Where is erythropoietin (EPO) produced?

Kidney.

62
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What is the effect of EPO?

Stimulates erythroid progenitor cells and RBC production.

63
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How does hypoxia affect EPO production?

Increases EPO production.

64
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What does ESA stand for?

Erythropoiesis-Stimulating Agent.

65
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Name two ESAs.

Epoetin alfa and darbepoetin alfa.

66
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What is the advantage of darbepoetin alfa over epoetin alfa?

Longer half-life.

67
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What is the major indication for ESA therapy?

Anemia of chronic kidney disease.

68
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What are the major adverse effects of ESAs?

Hypertension and thrombosis.

69
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Name two HIF-PHIs.

Daprodustat and vadadustat.

70
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How do HIF-PHIs work?

Stabilize HIF and increase endogenous EPO production.

71
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What is luspatercept?

An erythroid maturation agent.

72
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What are the major indications of luspatercept?

Beta-thalassemia and lower-risk MDS.

73
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What does G-CSF stimulate?

Neutrophil production.

74
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Name two G-CSF agents.

Filgrastim and pegfilgrastim.

75
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What is the most common adverse effect of filgrastim?

Bone pain.

76
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What is GM-CSF?

A growth factor stimulating neutrophils, monocytes, and eosinophils.

77
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Name a GM-CSF drug.

Sargramostim.

78
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What does thrombopoietin (TPO) stimulate?

Megakaryocyte maturation and platelet production.

79
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Name four TPO receptor agonists.

Romiplostim, eltrombopag, avatrombopag, lusutrombopag.

80
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What is the major indication for romiplostim?

Chronic immune thrombocytopenia (ITP).

81
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Which minerals interfere with eltrombopag absorption?

Calcium, iron, magnesium, aluminum.

82
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What is a major adverse effect of eltrombopag?

Hepatotoxicity.

83
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What is oprelvekin?

Recombinant IL-11.

84
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What is the effect of oprelvekin?

Increases platelet production.

85
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What is the most important adverse effect of oprelvekin?

Fluid retention.

86
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What hematologic abnormalities occur in copper deficiency?

Anemia and leukopenia.

87
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What is pyridoxine (vitamin B6) used to treat?

Sideroblastic anemia.

88
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What is the treatment for isoniazid-induced sideroblastic anemia?

Pyridoxine (vitamin B6).

89
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Which drugs are used for anemia of CKD?

Epoetin alfa, darbepoetin alfa, daprodustat, vadadustat.

90
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Which drug is used for transfusion-dependent beta-thalassemia?

Luspatercept.

91
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Which drug is used for chemotherapy-induced neutropenia?

Filgrastim.

92
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Which drugs are used for chronic ITP?

Romiplostim and eltrombopag.