4TH SE MICRO Samplex

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Last updated 1:15 PM on 4/20/26
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128 Terms

1
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Using KOH mounts in clinical specimens, microscopic morphology of Candida spp and Malassezia spp will show:
a. Cigar-shaped yeasts
b. Conidia
c. Oval budding yeast cells
d. Septated hyphal elements

c. Oval budding yeast cells

2
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What is the causative agent of Tinea barbae?
a. Epidermophyton floccosum
b. Microsporum nanum
c. Trichophyton mentagrophytes
d. Malassezia furfur

c. Trichophyton mentagrophytes

3
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A 7 year old male was brought to emergency room because of stiffness and pain in the back and neck. A few days prior patient was noted with fever, body malaise, headache, nausea, vomiting and drowsiness. Poliomyelitis was considered. At what stage of poliomyelitis does this patient belong?
a. Aseptic meningitis
b. Progressive poliomyelitis
c. Mild disease
d. Paralytic poliomyelitis

d. Paralytic poliomyelitis

4
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What fungi have habitats that are not clearly defined?
a. Coccidioidomycosis & Histoplasmosis
b. Blastomycosis & Paracoccidioidomycosis
c. Coccidioidomycosis & Paracoccidioidomycosis
d. Blastomycosis & Histoplasmosis

b. Blastomycosis & Paracoccidioidomycosis

5
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This causative agent produces black grain discharge in mycetoma:
a. Actinomadura pelletierii
b. Madurella grisea
c. Acremonium falciforme
d. Actinomadura madurae

b. Madurella grisea

6
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A brown macule on the foot of a patient showed 2-celled oval yeast and short hyphae under microscopic examination. What is the disease?
a. Tinea corporis
b. Tinea nigra
c. Black piedra
d. Tinea pedis

b. Tinea nigra

7
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Which among the dermatophytes has numerous microconidia?
a. Microsporum
b. Trichophyton
c. Epidermophyton
d. All of the choices

b. Trichophyton

8
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A fungal infection affecting the chest, back and arms of young people is:
a. Onychomycosis
b. Tinea capitis
c. Tinea versicolor
d. Athlete’s foot

c. Tinea versicolor

9
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Dermatophytosis is a term used to describe:
a. A specific group of fungi
b. Fungal infections of the skin, hair and nails
c. Fungal reproduction
d. Antifungal drugs

b. Fungal infections of the skin, hair and nails

10
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What is the most important opportunistic infection in AIDS patients?
a. Candidiasis
b. Pneumocytosis
c. Cryptococcosis
d. Histoplasmosis

b. Pneumocytosis

11
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What is the most common life-threatening complication of measles?
a. SSPE
b. pneumonia
c. otitis media
d. encephalitis

b. pneumonia

12
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Which of the following is NOT part of the classical triad of mycetoma?
a. Granules in discharge
b. Subcutaneous mass
c. Lesion at the site of inoculation
d. Draining sinus

c. Lesion at the site of inoculation

13
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Madurella mycetomatis produces black grains:
a. True
b. False

a. True

14
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Which of the following yeasts is NOT part of the normal flora?
a. Malassezia globosa
b. Candida glabrata
c. Candida tropicalis
d. Cryptococcus neoformans

d. Cryptococcus neoformans

15
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Which of the following is the primary culture medium used for dermatophytes?
a. Nutrient agar
b. Sabouraud dextrose agar
c. MacConkey agar
d. Blood agar

b. Sabouraud dextrose agar

16
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Which of the following statements about Sporotrichosis is correct?
a. It is not a lymphangitic disease
b. It is caused by Pseudallescheria boydii
c. It only affects immunocompromised individuals
d. It is caused by a dimorphic organism

d. It is caused by a dimorphic organism

17
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Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for systemic coccidioidomycosis?
a. Immunocompromised state
b. Age and sex
c. Heredity
d. Environmental exposure

c. Heredity

18
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The presence in neurons of eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusion bodies, called Negri bodies, is characteristic of which of the following infections?
a. Rabies
b. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
c. New variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
d. Postvaccine encephalitis

a. Rabies

19
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What is the most common viral cause of asthma exacerbation?
a. Parainfluenza virus
b. Coronavirus
c. Rhinovirus
d. Respiratory syncytial virus

c. Rhinovirus

20
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In immunocompromised patients, Candida can cause:
a. Superficial infection
b. Meningitis
c. Thrush
d. Invasive thrombosis

d. Invasive thrombosis

21
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Surgical excision is a part of treatment for chromoblastomycosis:
a. True
b. False

a. True

22
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Which of the following Candida species is germ tube positive?
a. Candida albicans
b. Candida glabrata
c. Candida krusei
d. Candida tropicalis

a. Candida albicans

23
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Which of the following is the causative agent of chromoblastomycosis?
a. Phialophora verrucosa
b. Exophiala jeanselmei
c. Pseudallescheria boydii
d. Acremonium spp.

a. Phialophora verrucosa

24
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Which fungus is commonly found in dry dusty soil?
a. Coccidioides immitis
b. Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
c. Histoplasma capsulatum
d. Blastomyces dermatitidis

a. Coccidioides immitis

25
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Dermatophyte infection is commonly associated with:
a. Fecal-oral transmission
b. IV drug abuse
c. Adherence to moist skin
d. Inhalation of spores from bird droppings

c. Adherence to moist skin

26
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All of the following are correct about aspergillosis EXCEPT:
a. It may cause allergic bronchopulmonary disease
b. It is associated with eosinophilia
c. It is not associated with steroid use
d. It can form fungus balls (aspergilloma)

c. It is not associated with steroid use

27
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The incidence of histoplasmosis is highest in:
a. Africa
b. USA
c. Philippines
d. Canada

b. USA

28
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Pseudallescheria boydii produces white grains:
a. True
b. False

a. True

29
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Dimorphic fungi exist in yeast form at:
a. 25°C
b. 37°C
c. Both temperatures
d. None

b. 37°C

30
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Fungi imperfecti refers to:
a. Deuteromycota
b. Zygomycota
c. Basidiomycota
d. Ascomycota

a. Deuteromycota

31
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All of the following are true of poliomyelitis EXCEPT:
a. It is preventable
b. Humans are the only reservoir
c. Incubation period is 3–35 days
d. Most infections are symptomatic

d. Most infections are symptomatic

32
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Fungi commonly found in dry soil or bird droppings include:
a. Blastomyces and Paracoccidioides
b. Coccidioides and Histoplasma
c. Blastomyces and Histoplasma
d. Coccidioides and Paracoccidioides

b. Coccidioides and Histoplasma

33
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Which of the following is NOT characteristic of systemic mycoses?
a. High host resistance
b. High virulence
c. Symptomatic infection
d. Strong immunity

a. High host resistance

34
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Which of the following is NOT used in the treatment of oral candidiasis?
a. Ketoconazole
b. Flucytosine
c. Fluconazole
d. Nystatin

b. Flucytosine

35
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Arboviruses are grouped together based on which of the following characteristics?
a. Cause hemorrhagic fever
b. Transmitted by vectors
c. Contain DNA
d. Replicate only in humans

b. Transmitted by vectors

36
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Which organism shows cigar-shaped yeast morphology?
a. Candida albicans
b. Sporothrix schenckii
c. Fonsecaea pedrosoi
d. Malassezia furfur

b. Sporothrix schenckii

37
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Which of the following is NOT true of opportunistic mycoses?
a. Occur in immunocompromised hosts
b. Have multiple portals of entry
c. Usually occur in healthy individuals
d. Caused by low virulence organisms

c. Usually occur in healthy individuals

38
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The most common opportunistic fungal infection is:
a. Cryptococcus neoformans
b. Candida albicans
c. Aspergillus fumigatus
d. Pneumocystis jirovecii

b. Candida albicans

39
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All of the following are true regarding influenza EXCEPT:
a. Enters via respiratory tract
b. Viremia is common
c. Causes mucosal destruction
d. Predisposes to secondary bacterial pneumonia

b. Viremia is common

40
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Which drug is used for disseminated histoplasmosis?
a. Fluconazole
b. Amphotericin B
c. Itraconazole
d. Ketoconazole

b. Amphotericin B

41
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What is the most important cause of gastroenteritis in infants?
a. Norwalk virus
b. Reovirus
c. Rotavirus
d. Enterovirus

c. Rotavirus

42
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Sclerotic bodies are diagnostic of chromoblastomycosis:
a. True
b. False

a. True

43
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Which of the following is the drug of choice for coccidioidal meningitis?
a. Amphotericin B
b. Fluconazole
c. Ketoconazole
d. Nystatin

b. Fluconazole

44
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Which of the following oral antifungal drugs is commonly used for ringworm infections?
a. Itraconazole
b. Ketoconazole
c. Griseofulvin
d. Nystatin

c. Griseofulvin

45
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Which of the following statements about yeasts is INCORRECT?
a. They reproduce by budding
b. They may form pseudohyphae
c. They are always dimorphic
d. They are unicellular

c. They are always dimorphic

46
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The drug of choice for sporotrichosis is:
a. Ketoconazole
b. Itraconazole
c. Flucytosine
d. Amphotericin B

b. Itraconazole

47
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North American blastomycosis is caused by:
a. Histoplasma capsulatum
b. Blastomyces dermatitidis
c. Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
d. Coccidioides immitis

b. Blastomyces dermatitidis

48
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Ectothrix hair infection can be visualized using:
a. Bright field microscopy
b. Calcofluor white stain
c. Riddell mount
d. Wood’s lamp

d. Wood’s lamp

49
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In Candida species, the buds that remain attached forming elongated chains are called:
a. Blastoconidia
b. Pseudohyphae
c. Chlamydospores
d. Arthroconidia

b. Pseudohyphae

50
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In immunocompromised patients, Candida infections may result in:
a. Skin rash
b. Thrush
c. Thrombosis
d. Fever only

c. Thrombosis

51
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Which of the following statements about Mucor is INCORRECT?
a. It is angioinvasive
b. It belongs to Zygomycetes
c. It causes tissue necrosis
d. All statements are correct

d. All statements are correct

52
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Which of the following statements about fungal diseases is INCORRECT?
a. Superficial mycoses invade dermis
b. Opportunistic mycoses arise from normal flora
c. Subcutaneous mycoses occur below the skin
d. Systemic mycoses affect deep tissues

a. Superficial mycoses invade dermis

53
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Conidia are:
a. Sexual spores
b. Asexual spores
c. Always pathogenic
d. Only found in yeasts

b. Asexual spores

54
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Which of the following spores are produced by Zygomycota?
a. Basidiospores
b. Ascospores
c. Conidiospores
d. Sporangiospores

d. Sporangiospores

55
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Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of systemic mycoses?
a. High virulence
b. Strong immunity
c. High host resistance
d. Symptomatic infection

c. High host resistance

56
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Which test is used to identify Candida albicans?
a. Germ tube test
b. India ink test
c. Catalase test
d. Oxidase test

a. Germ tube test

57
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Which of the following fungi shows hyphae in tissue and environment?
a. Candida albicans
b. Cryptococcus neoformans
c. Aspergillus fumigatus
d. Malassezia furfur

c. Aspergillus fumigatus

58
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Aspergillus fumigatus is characterized by:
a. Broad budding yeast
b. Sporangia formation
c. Non-septate hyphae
d. Dichotomous branching hyphae at 45°

d. Dichotomous branching hyphae at 45°

59
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A mass of hyphae is referred to as:
a. Conidiophore
b. Septate hypha
c. Mycelium
d. Spherule

c. Mycelium

60
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Which of the following is the best test for direct examination of fungi?
a. Lactophenol cotton blue
b. 10% potassium hydroxide
c. Gram stain
d. Tease mount

b. 10% potassium hydroxide

61
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Tinea versicolor shows which microscopic appearance?
a. Sulfur granules
b. Daisy conidia
c. Spaghetti and meatballs
d. Spherules

c. Spaghetti and meatballs

62
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Poisoning from ingestion of toxic mushrooms is termed:
a. Mycosis
b. Mycotoxicosis
c. Mycetismus
d. Mycetoma

c. Mycetismus

63
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Fungi imperfecti are:
a. Zygomycetes
b. Basidiomycetes
c. Ascomycetes
d. Deuteromycetes

d. Deuteromycetes

64
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Dematiaceous fungi are:
a. Non-pigmented
b. Hyaline
c. Pigmented
d. Yeast-like

c. Pigmented

65
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Which of the following are risk factors for opportunistic mycoses?
a. Malignancy
b. Immunosuppressive drugs
c. Steroid therapy
d. All of the choices

d. All of the choices

66
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Wood’s lamp examination in tinea versicolor shows:
a. Blue fluorescence
b. Yellow fluorescence
c. Green fluorescence
d. No fluorescence

b. Yellow fluorescence

67
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Which of the following viruses does NOT primarily enter through the respiratory tract?
a. Paramyxovirus
b. Coronavirus
c. Poxvirus
d. Hepadnavirus

d. Hepadnavirus

68
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Which of the following viruses commonly causes symptomatic infection in children?
a. Cytomegalovirus
b. Epstein-Barr virus
c. Herpes simplex virus type 2
d. Varicella-zoster virus

d. Varicella-zoster virus

69
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In the tertiary stage of lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV), the following can be seen EXCEPT:
a. Death from bowel obstruction
b. Elephantiasis of genitalia
c. Occurs weeks after initial infection
d. Rectal stricture

c. Occurs weeks after initial infection

70
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Which of the following mechanisms is responsible for Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) tumor formation?
a. Immortalization of B cells
b. Increased white blood cell count
c. Formation of atypical lymphocytes
d. Production of heterophile antibodies

a. Immortalization of B cells

71
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Which method is best for visualizing spirochetes?
a. Ziehl-Neelsen stain
b. India ink preparation
c. Congo red stain
d. Darkfield microscopy

d. Darkfield microscopy

72
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Treatment for Epstein-Barr virus infection includes:
a. Interferon
b. Ribavirin
c. Vaccine
d. None

d. None

73
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Which of the following is a marker of Hepatitis B infection?
a. Anti-HBs
b. Anti-HBc
c. HBsAg
d. Anti-HAV

c. HBsAg

74
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HSV-2 establishes latency in:
a. Trigeminal ganglia
b. Sacral ganglia
c. Vagal ganglia
d. Peripheral nerves

b. Sacral ganglia

75
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Which virus causes multinucleated giant cells?
a. Adenovirus
b. Cytomegalovirus
c. Epstein-Barr virus
d. Varicella-zoster virus

d. Varicella-zoster virus

76
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A brown pigmented lesion on the foot is most likely:
a. Black piedra
b. Tinea corporis
c. Tinea nigra
d. Tinea pedis

c. Tinea nigra

77
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Dermatophytosis refers to:
a. A group of fungi
b. Fungal reproduction
c. Skin infection
d. Antifungal drugs

c. Skin infection

78
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Which of the following is a superficial mycosis?
a. Blood infection
b. Nail infection
c. Brain infection
d. Lung infection

b. Nail infection

79
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Which of the following is NOT true of tinea versicolor?
a. Caused by Malassezia
b. Superficial infection
c. Diagnosed by KOH
d. Shows elongated cells

d. Shows elongated cells

80
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Arboviruses are classified based on:
a. DNA content
b. Mode of transmission
c. Host specificity
d. Replication site

b. Mode of transmission

81
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Which virus does NOT primarily infect via respiratory route?
a. Adenovirus
b. Coronavirus
c. Poxvirus
d. Hepadnavirus

d. Hepadnavirus

82
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Which of the following viruses has a segmented RNA genome?
a. Orthomyxovirus
b. Paramyxovirus
c. Coronavirus
d. Togavirus

a. Orthomyxovirus

83
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What is the most common cause of gastroenteritis in infants?
a. Enterovirus
b. Norwalk virus
c. Rotavirus
d. Reovirus

c. Rotavirus

84
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The presence of Negri bodies is diagnostic of:
a. Rabies
b. SSPE
c. Encephalitis
d. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

a. Rabies

85
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The scientific or clinical procedure done in the turtle in the experiment on CVS is:
a. Thoracotomy
b. Pericardiostomy
c. Pericardiectomy
d. Thoracentesis

a. Thoracotomy

86
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The scientific or clinical procedure done on the mice in the experiment on GIT is:
a. Biopsy
b. Aspiration
c. Autopsy
d. Smear

d. Smear

87
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The scientific name of the white mice used in the laboratory on GIT is:
a. Rodentia nigp by drdopra
b. Rodentia mura
c. Rodentia alba
d. Rodentia pruta

c. Rodentia alba

88
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The scientific name of the herbal plant that produced the least potent anti-diarrheal effect is:
a. Persia americana
b. Chrysophylum caimito
c. Zyzygium cumuni
d. Yerba buena

b. Chrysophylum caimito

89
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The chemical component of the herbal plants with anti-diarrheal effect is a flavonoid known as:
a. Tannins
b. Glycosides
c. Alkaloids
d. Quercetins

a. Tannins

90
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The scientific name of the herbal plant that has the most cardiotoxic CVS effect is:
a. Vitex negundo
b. Piperonia pellucida
c. Ipomea batatas
d. Vinca rosea

d. Vinca rosea

91
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The standard drug with a laxative-cathartic effect is:
a. Atropine
b. Ach
c. NE
d. Senna

d. Senna

92
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The anti-muscarinic standard drug with the most potent anti-diarrheal effect is:
a. Ach
b. NE
c. Neostigmine
d. Atropine SO₄

d. Atropine SO₄

93
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The clinical uses of Atropine SO₄ are the following EXCEPT:
a. Anti-sialagogic
b. Mydriatic-cycloplegic
c. CNS stimulant
d. CNS depressant

d. CNS depressant

94
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The tracer substance used in the laboratory on GIT experiment is:
a. Castor oil
b. Coconut oil
c. Charcoal
d. Silver nitrate

c. Charcoal

95
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What type of laxative-cathartic is senna?
a. Lubricant
b. Bulk
c. Stimulant
d. Osmotic

c. Stimulant

96
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The route of administration given to the turtle in the CVS experiment is:
a. Installation
b. Instillation
c. Drop by drop
d. Oral gavage

b. Instillation

97
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The route of administration given to the mice in the GIT experiment is:
a. Instillation
b. Oral gavage
c. Naso-gastric intubation
d. Nasal insufflation

b. Oral gavage

98
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The adrenergic standard drug used in the experiment in CVS is:
a. Dopa
b. Dopamine
c. NE
d. Epinephrine

c. NE

99
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What standard drug produced the depressant effect on CVS experiment?
a. Neostigmine
b. Dopamine
c. Epinephrine
d. Dopa

a. Neostigmine

100
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What is the scientific name of the herbal plant that produced a slight or mild cardiostimulant effect although delayed is:
a. Coleus blumei
b. Vitex negundo
c. Vinca rosea
d. Piperonia pellucida

a. Coleus blumei