Lange Review PATIENT CARE

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Last updated 12:37 AM on 6/14/26
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146 Terms

1
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Patient consent can be _____, ______, or ______

Verbal (oral), written, or implied

2
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What does the acronym HIPAA stand for?

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

3
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What is the name of a personal document naming the individual who is authorized to make all health care decisions?

Advanced Healthcare Directive / Living Will (Healthcare proxy)

4
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What is the term used to describe the ethical principle of goodness?

Beneficence

5
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What is the term used to describe the ethical principle of truthfulness?

Veracity

6
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What is the ethical term used to describe no evil, that is, our obligation to not inflict harm?

Nonmaleficence

7
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What is the ethical term used to describe faithfulness or loyalty?

Veracity

8
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What is the ethical term used to describe self-determination; our respect of the independence of others?

Autonomy

9
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What is the term used to describe patient protection concerning release of their private information?

Confidentiality

10
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What are the four conditions required for valid patient consent?

  1. Legal age

  2. Sound mind

  3. Consent freely

  4. Adequately informed

11
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What AHA document identifies and lists the requirements for open and honest communication, respect for differences, and for personal and professional values required for optimal patient care?

AHA’s: A Patients Bill of Rights

12
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What do the abbreviations DNR and DNI stand for?

  1. Do not resuscitate

  2. Do not intubate

13
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The terms libel and slander refer to the spreading of information that causes loss of reputation and/or defamation of character; what is the difference between the two terms?

  1. Libel is written defamation

  2. Slander is verbal defamation

14
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What is the difference between assault and battery?

  1. Assault is the threat to touch another in an injurious way

  2. Battery is unlawful touching of another without consent

15
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The omission or failure to take reasonable care or caution is termed ______?

Negligence

16
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What is the literal meaning of the doctrine of res ipsa loquitur?

The thing speaks for itself

17
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What is the literal meaning of the doctrine respondeat superior?

Let the master answer

18
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Another name for professional negligence is ________

Malpractice

19
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Which part of the ARRT Standards of Ethics is aspirational? Which part is enforceable?

  1. Code of Ethics is aspirational

  2. Rules of Ethics is enforceable

20
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Select the violations of ARRT Rules of Ethics from the following:

A. Submitting misleading educational history

B. Revealing privileged patient communication

C. Failure to obtain pertinent information for the radiologist

D. Violating state/federal narcotics laws

A. Submitting misleading educational history

B. Revealing privileged patient communication

D. Violating state/federal narcotics laws

21
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What could a radiographer be sued for if a patient falls of a stretcher, whose side rails are down, while waiting outside the xray room after their examination?

Negligence

22
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Eye contact, facial expression, personal appearance, touch, etc are all types of ______ communication?

Nonverbal

23
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What is the term used to describe restriction of patient movement to ensure safety?

Restraint

24
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What is the term used to describe he used of various devices to help prevent patient movement during imaging procedures?

Immobilization

25
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What are the three types of communication?

  1. Verbal/oral

  2. Written

  3. Nonverbal

26
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What is the term used to describe loss of language function; inability to speak?

Aphasia

27
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Select the ways in which interpersonal communication can be improved:

A. Explaining the examination to the patient

B. Speaking to toddlers at eye level

C. Moving quickly with the elderly

D. Using a family member to translate for language-challenged patient

E. Providing privacy and modesty for adolescents

A. Explaining the examination to the patient

B. Speaking to toddlers at eye level

E. Providing privacy and modesty for adolescents

28
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Socially shared characteristics attitudes, beliefs, language, customs, etc of a group of people that are passed from one generation to the next defines _______

Culture

29
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How should the radiographer explain the examination to the patient?

In a simple, clear, and direct manner, without the use of elaborate medical terminology

30
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Why is it important to clearly explain the procedure to the patient?

It reduces patient anxiety, increases cooperation, and results in a better examination

31
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How is the patient likely to respond to a complicated explanation laden with technical jargon?

Feelings of intimidation and increased anxiety

32
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The use of physical restraints on adult patients requires a/an ______ order

Physicians

33
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The Joint Commission (TJC) requires that health care personnel to use at least ______ patient identifiers to validate identity before proceeding with the health care services

Two

34
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Select who should be used as an interpreter for patients having language barriers:

A. Parent, child, or spouse of the patient

B. Any immediate family member

C. A trained interpreter

C. A trained interpreter

35
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What is the term used to describe a discriminatory attitude toward the elderly?

Ageism

36
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_________ technique is used to prevent the spread of pathogens and protect the patient from infection

Aseptic

37
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The destruction of pathogens through the use of chemical materials is termed ______

Disinfection

38
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Another name for surgical asepsis is ______\

Sterilization

39
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To reduce the probability of infectious organisms transmission to a susceptible individual is the function of _______

Medical asepsis

40
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Probably the easiest and most effective method of controlling the transmission of infections is ______

Handwashing

41
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Microorganisms capable of causing disease are called ______

Pathogens/pathogenic organisms

42
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An area that is free of viable microorganisms is considered to be _______

Sterile/a sterile field

43
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Arrange the following steps for opening a sterile package in their correct order:

A. Opening the side flaps

B. Opening the flap located furthest from you

C. Opening the flap located closest to you

B. Opening the flap located furthest from you

A. Opening the side flaps

C. Opening the flap located closest to you

44
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If in doubt about the sterility of an object, it should be considered _____

Unsterile

45
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How must OR persons in sterile gown and gloves pass each other?

Back to back

46
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What is the term used to describe the principle habitat where a particular infectious agent lives and multiplies, and from which it can spread to cause disease?

Reservoir of infection

47
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Arrange the cycle of infection components in their correct order following the recognized reservoir of infection:

A. Transmission of disease

B. Susceptible host

C. Portal of exit

D. Portal of entry

C. Portal of exit

B. Susceptible host

D. Portal of entry

A. Transmission of disease

48
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Animals, food, water, and the soil are all examples of what part of the cycle of infection?

They are all reservoirs of infection

49
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An object that transmits infectious material/pathogenic organisms is termed ______

A fomite

50
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Tuberculosis, varicella, and rubeola are examples of infections transmitted via ________

Air/airborne transmission

51
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Name some examples of vehicles of infection

  1. Contaminated water

  2. Food

  3. Blood

  4. Drugs

52
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Any medium that transports microorganisms is termed _____

A vehicle

53
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Give some examples of arthropod-borne infectious diseases

  1. Lyme disease

  2. West Nile virus

  3. Malaria

  4. Bubonic plague

  5. Rocky Mountains spotted fever

54
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An arthropod in whose body an infectious organism develops/multiples before infecting a host is termed _______

A vector

55
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What type of transmission can occur when an infectious individual sneezes, coughs, speaks, etc in the vicinity of a susceptible host?

Droplet transmission

56
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List at least three conditions that require the use of contact precautions

  1. MRSA

  2. Hepatitis A

  3. Varicella

  4. Impetigo

  5. Varicella zoster

57
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What is the name of the route of transmission in which the infected person touches a susceptible hosts tissue?

Direct contact

58
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Nosocomial, or HAI, refers to what kind of infection?

Nosocomial and HAI (healthcare associated infection) infections are those acquired in health care facilities

59
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When skin is being prepared for a surgical procedure, it is first cleansed in what direction and motion?

Starting at the center, using a circular motion in widening circles (working from the center outward)

60
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Disposable materials wet with contaminated blood or body fluids should be placed ______

In a red bag or special container marked with biohazard symbol

61
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When should mobile equipment be cleaned for mobile studies of compromised patients?

Before entering the patients room

62
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Regarding sterile technique, where are gowns considered sterile?

In the front from the waist up and the sleeves

63
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What are three types of transmission-based precautions?

  1. Airborne

  2. Droplet

  3. Contact

64
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What type of transmission-based precaution requires a negative pressure isolation room?

Airborne precaution

65
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What type of transmission-based precaution is required for influenza, mumps, and rubella?

Droplet precaution

66
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What type of transmission-based precaution is required for MRSA and varicella?

Contact precaution

67
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What part of a sterile glove is not considered sterile when donning it with a non sterile hand?

The inside of the cuff

68
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What care should be given to the mobile equipment used for imaging a patient with contact precautions?

Must be cleaned/decontaminated with an antiseptic solution

69
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What type of transmission-based precaution requires the healthcare worker to wear a respiratory protection mask?

Airborne precaution

70
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What type of transmission-based precaution requires the healthcare worker to wear gloves and gown?

Contact precaution

71
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What type of transmission-based precaution requires the healthcare worker to wear a particulate protection/surgical string mask?

Droplet precaution

72
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All vascular access procedures require that the healthcare worker wear ______

Gloves

73
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In what ways are needle-stick injuries avoided?

  • Needle recapping must be avoided

  • If recapping is required “one handed scoop” technique should be used

74
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Special puncture proof containers are provided for ______

Discarding sharps (needles, etc)

75
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List some appropriate actions to take if a patient feels faint

  • If seated, bend forward and place head between knees

  • If recumbent, place in Trendelenburg position

  • If upright, place in recumbent position

76
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A pulse oximeter measured ______ and _____

Oxygen saturation level of blood and pulse rate

77
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Arrange the following structures in order as they fill with air upon inspiration:

A. Trachea

B. Pharynx

C. Lungs

D. Nose

E. Bronchi

F. Larynx

D. Nose

B. Pharynx

F. Larynx

A. Trachea

E. Bronchi

C. Lungs

78
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What patient movement precaution should be taken when performing mobile chest x-rays within the first 24 hours following pacemaker insertion?

Avoid elevating the arm

79
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What are the vital signs?

  1. Body temperature

  2. Pulse rate

  3. Respiratory rate

  4. Arterial blood pressure

80
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A febrile condition is usually caused by ______

Some kind of infection

81
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What measurement site generally records the highest body temperature? What time of day is body temperature usually highest?

Rectal and at night

82
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The term used to describe difficulty in breathing is ______; the term used to describe abnormally

rapid breathing is _____

Dyspnea ; tachypnea

83
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What is the normal adult respiratory rate? How does that compare with the normal respiratory rate of children?

Adults: 12 to 18 breaths/min

Children have higher rate up to 30 breaths/min

84
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Blood pressure in vessels is highest during what phase of the heart cycle?

Ventricular systolic

85
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When blood pressure measurements are recorded, what number is placed on top?

Systolic

86
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A sphygmomanometer and a stethoscope are needed to assess ______

Blood pressure

87
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What is the normal adult systolic range? What is the normal diastolic range?

Systolic: 100 to 140

Diastolic: 60 to 90

88
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Blood pressure reading consistently above 140/90 are termed ______

Hypertension

89
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During blood pressure measurement, the cuff needs to be inflated enough to collapse the _______ artery

Brachial artery

90
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During blood pressure measurement, the first sound heard upon very slow opening of the bulb pump valve is the _____ pressure

Systolic

91
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The body’s center of gravity in the upright position is the ______; the body’s stability is increased, and muscle strain decreased, with a _____ center of gravity and _____ base of support

  • Center of the pelvis (sacral level)

  • Lower

  • Wider

92
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Body stability is maintained when its center of gravity is ______ its base of support

Over / in line with

93
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When helping a patient into/out of a wheelchair, the wheelchair should be ______ to the xray table/bed and locked

45 degrees

94
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When transferring a patient from the wheelchair to the xray table/bed, the patients ______ side should approach the xray table/bed first

Stronger

95
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What is the most common device used to deliver low concentrations and low flow of oxygen?

Nasal cannula

96
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When an IV infusion is in place, the IV standard/bag should be ______ inch(es) above the level of the vein

18 to 24 inches

97
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The term diaphoresis refers to profuse ______

Sweating/perspiration

98
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An endotracheal tube is used for ______ ventilation

Mechanical

99
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What kind of tube is likely to be used in cases of pleural effusion, pneumothorax or hemothorax?

Chest / tracheostomy tube

100
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Larger gauge needles have a ______ bore; the part of the needle attached to the syringe is the ______

  • Smaller

  • Hub