Active Care Exam I

Pecs, Anterior deltoid, Upper trapezius, Scalenes, and levator scapulae

What muscles are tight or facilitated (uninhibited) in an upper cross syndrome?

Lower trapezius, Serratus anterior, Longus colli, and longus capitus

What muscles are weak or inhibited in an upper cross syndrome?

Tight (facilitated)

The IT band, lateral hamstring, and psoas muscles are ____________________ in a lower cross syndrome.

Gluteus medius, gluteus maximus, and abdominals

What muscles are weak/inhibited in a lower cross syndrome?

Glenohumeral, upper cervicals, ankle and T spine

What joints are prone to mobility restrictions, making them hypomobile?

Foot, knee, lumbars, and mid-lower cervicals

What joints are prone to stability restrictions, making them hypermobile?

Control

The primary goal of rehabilitation in muscle movement is to retrain what?

Stretch

We want to ___________ facilitated/tight muscles.

Strengthen

We want to ____________ weak/inhibited muscles.

Serratus anterior

What is the agonist for protraction of the scapula?

Rhomboids

What is the antagonist for protraction of the scapula?

Latissimus dorsi

What is the agonist for adduction of the humerus?

Middle deltoid (look at brightspace in content, there's like 300 agonist/antagonist questions)

What is the antagonist for adduction of the humerus?

Analgesic response

The acute increase in range of motion during passive stretching is due to what?

Stretch induced strength loss

What is it called when a muscle can't contract as powerfully due to loose muscle tissue, and an inhibition of maximal force?

False

T/F- You should stretch during DOMS (delayed onset muscle soreness).

True

T/F- You should avoid stretching after high intensity or strength training sessions.

Contract-relax

Which stretching method would you find the point of tension, hold the stretch for 10-12 seconds, and the the patient would contract the stretched muscle against your resistance to neutral, and then relax. And then you would repeat the process?

Hold-relax

Which stretching method would the doctor find the point of tension, and then the patient would engage isometric contraction (not moving positions), and then relax?

CRAC (contract-relax-agonist contract)

Which stretching method consists of the doctor finding the point of tension, the patient then engaging isometric contraction of the stretched muscle, then relaxing, and then the patient activates the apposing muscle to increase the stretch?

Irradiation

With regards to PNF (proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation) what is the spread of excitation in the CNS that causes contraction of the synergistic muscles?

Rhythmic stabilization

What facilitation technique consists of alternating between isometric actions of the agonist and antagonist muscles?

Antagonist

In rhythmic stabilization, contraction should occur in which muscle first?

Slow reversal

Which facilitation technique consists of concentric action of the antagonist, followed by concentric action of the agonist?

1st class

What class of lever has the fulcrum between the resistance and the force arm?

Cervical extension

What is an example of a 1st class lever within the body?

2nd class

What class of lever has the resistance between the force and the fulcrum, and allows you to move a large resistance with a little force? (Think wheelbarrow)

Calf raises (or pushups)

What is an example of a 2nd class lever within the body?

3rd class

What class of lever has the force between the resistance and the fulcrum, and is made for speed?

3rd class

What is the most common class of lever within the body?

Knee/elbow flexion

What are examples of a 3rd class lever within the body?

Actin and myosin

What is the contractile tissue within a muscle fiber?

Endomysium, perimysium, and epimysium

What are the non-contractile tissues within a muscle?

Step 1

Which step in a muscle contraction consists of a calcium influx, which triggers troponin to pull tropomyosin off and expose the binding site on actin?

Step 2

Which step in muscle contraction consists of myosin binding actin?

Step 3

Which step in muscle contraction is the power stroke? (H zone and I zone disappear)

Step 4

Which step in muscle contraction is hydrolysis of ATP, which returns the sliding filaments to normal position?

Step 5

Calcium returns to the sarcoplasmic reticulum in which step of a muscle contraction?

True

T/F- The force of contraction depends on the number of motor units within a muscle, and the number of muscle fibers within a motor unit.

Concentric

Which form of isotonic contraction will shorten the muscle?

Eccentric

Which form of isotonic contraction will lengthen the muscle?

Isokinetic

What type of contraction will have constant velocity throughout?

Isotonic

What type of contraction will have constant strength throughout?

IIa

What type of muscle fiber is fast twitch, fast oxidative, quickly fatigued, and more easily recruited?

IIb

What type of muscle fiber is fast twitch, fast glycolytic, is more difficult to recruit, and is used in very high intensity exercises?

I

What type of muscle fiber is slow oxidative, has rich blood supply, goes to highly aerobic tissues, small fibers, and is made for endurance?

IIa

Which type of type II muscle fiber is most easily recruited and is more aerobic than the other?

Open

FIB- Biceps curls, bench press, and sit ups are all examples of _______ chain movements.

Closed

FIB- Squats, push-ups, and handstands are all examples of _________ chain movements.

Frontal

Which plane of movement would shoulder raises, side squats, and jumping jacks be in?

Sagittal

Which plane of movement would consist of sit-ups, biceps curls, and hamstring curls?

Horizontal (transverse)

Which plane of movement would consist of push-ups, squats, and pull ups?

SAID (specific adaptation to imposed demands)

Which training design factor says that the body makes gains according to the manner it is trained, or the intensity of exercise?

Progressive overload

What training design factor dictates that in order to continue gaining muscle, you must continually increase the load?

FITT (frequency, intensity, time, type)

What method is used to safely increase progressive overload?

True

T/F- Faster recruitment f muscle fibers, and faster motor units= more force.

False (less mitochondria)

T/F- Hypertrophy of muscle fibers means you make more ATP/glycogen and more mitochondria.

3-6 weeks

How long do neural adaptations take for strength training?

Neural adaptation

What can be attributed to an increase in strength, without an increase in size due to adaptation taking less time?

4-8 weeks

How long would metabolic adaptations take in strength training?

6-8 weeks minimum

How long do size adaptations take when strength training muscle?

Increase, decrease, increase

FIB- Respiratory adaptations that occur following endurance training ____________ (increase/decrease) O2 exchange in the lungs, __________ (inc/dec) submaximum respiratory rate, and _____________ (inc/dec) blow flow throughout the lungs.

Decrease

Is there an increase or decrease to resting heart rate as a cardiac adaptation in endurance training?

Increase

FIB- Cardiac output, blood volume, and the number of red blood cells and hemoglobin concentration all ____________ (increase/decrease) as a result of endurance training.

Increase

FIB- In response to endurance training, there is is a musculoskeletal adaptation that causes a __________ (increase/decrease) in mitochondrial size and density, AV oxygen difference, and oxidative enzymes.

False (does not fatigue as quickly)

T/F- As a result of endurance training, aerobic capacity adapts and glycogen fatigues much more quickly than in an untrained individual.

Eccentric

Which stage of plyometric exercise prepares the muscle by lengthening it?

Amortization

Which stage of plyometric exercise transitions the muscle?

True

T/F- During the amortization phase of plyometrics, the shorter the conversion time, the better.

Concentric

What phase of plyometrics will have the contraction of the muscle, and is "power" movement during the exercise?

Stroke volume

What increases during training, until it is about 50% of VO2 max?

False (systolic increase, diastolic relatively unchanged)

T/F- With low force exercise, the systolic blood pressure is decreased, and the diastolic increases.

True

T/F- With resistance exercise, both systolic and diastolic blood pressures increase.

Lactate threshold

What is the point during increasing intensity of exercise where lactic acid begins to accumulate in the blood, and is thought to be a predictor of performance in endurance events?

RPE (borg scale, talk test, etc. )

How can we measure the lactate threshold?

PAR-Q

What screening test will tell you if you need to consult a doctor before starting an exercise regimen?

ACSM

What screening test is used to determine individuals of low, moderate, and high risk?

Low risk

According to ACSM, an individual that has no symptoms, and meets 1 or less of the risk factors would be considered what type of risk?

Moderate

If an individual is a male over 45 or a woman over 55, OR meets two or more risk factors would be classified as what risk level in the ACSM screening tool?

High risk

An individual having one or more major signs or symptoms, OR having a known cardiovascular, pulmonary, or metabolic disease would be classified as what risk level?

No, no, yes

With regards to testing and supervision of exercise, do low risk, moderate risk, high risk individuals need a physician for moderate exercise?

No, yes, yes

Do low risk, moderate risk, high risk individuals need physician supervised testing for vigorous exercise?

Karvonen formula

What takes into account a person's available heart range, from resting value to the estimated maximum?

True

T/F- Exercise when dysfunction is present may result in injury.

Osteoarthritis

Strengthening and endurance training can relieve symptoms in individuals with what age related disease?

Osteoarthritis

Post-injury rehabilitation is critical for prevention of what joint disease?

Sitting-rising test

What test may be helpful in indicating optimal neuromuscular efficiency, and as a predictor for all cause mortality?

Bony block, recent fracture, soft-tissue healing, hypermobile joints

What are some of the contraindications to stretching?

Ballistic

What type of stretches involve rapid alternating movements to end-range, and are considered an increased injury risk due to constant tension of the muscle spindles?

PNF

What type of stretching occurs in a spiral-diagonal plane?

Static

What type of stretching occurs in only a single plane?

Diagonal 1 and 2

What are the two patterns of motion for each extremity?

Soccer kick

What is the D1 movement of the lower extremity?

Snow plow

What is the D2 movement of the lower extremity?

Sword from sheath to air

What is the D2 movement of the upper extremity?

Grab seat belt to fasten seat belt

What is the D1 movement of the upper extremity?

CRAC (contract-relax-agonist contract)

Which technique utilizes reciprocal inhibition?

Hold relax, PIR, and postfacilitation stretch

Which techniques utilize the postcontraction inhibition principle?

PFS (post facilitation stretch)

Which stretching technique will the patient isometrically contract at maximum or near maximum strength for approximately 10 seconds?

MET (muscle energy technique)

Which stretching technique is thought to be particularly helpful with postural muscles?