A and P lab exam 3 written portion

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Last updated 9:42 PM on 4/11/26
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194 Terms

1
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Why does material have to be in solution for it to be sensed as taste?

Allows the fluid to run down the sides of papilla

2
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Sour, sweet, salty, bitter, and umami

Primary Tastes

3
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which Nerves transmit the sense of smell to the brain

Olfactory Nerves

4
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Nerves transmits the sense of taste to the brain

Facial, Glossopharyngeal, Vagus Nerves

5
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Where are taste buds located?

Sides of tongue papillae

6
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What is the exact region of the nasal cavity that is sensitive to smell stimuli?

Olfactory Epithelium

7
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What is the adaption for having taste buds that determine unpleasant bitter compounds in many plant species?

Bitter compounds frequently are poisons in plants

8
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some people with severe sinus infections can lose their sense of smell. How can an infection that spreads from the frontal or maxillary sinus impair the sense of semll? what structure or structures might be affected?

sinus infections can affect the ethmoid bone area where olfactory nerve fibers pass, disrupting the pathway for smell.

9
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Material must be in solution for it to be tasted. What process would be (Olfaction or gustation) to perceive a lipid based food?

Olfaction (Lipid base materials such as mint oil and garlic oil are sensed by smell)

  • Gustation (taste) requires substances to be dissolved in water (saliva)

  • Lipids (fats) are hydrophobic (they don’t dissolve well in water)

10
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how does a cold (rhinovirus) influence our perception of taste

increases mucous in nasal cavity which reduces material contact in the olfactory epithelium

reduced olfaction = reduced flavor in gustation

11
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Does adaptation to one smell influence adaptation to another smell?

No, smell pathways are specefic

12
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Some smells that we perceive as two separate smells are actually identical. What other cues do we use to distinguish between these two smells?

Sight

13
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"Eye shine" in nocturnal mammals is different from the "red eye" seen in some flash photographs. Eye shine is the reflection of light of the tapetum lucidum. What visual mechanism might explain red eye?

The bright light reflecting off the back of the retina which contains a blood-rich choroid layer behind it producing a red glow

14
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because the lens is made of protein, wht effect might the preserving fluid in lab have on the structure of the lens? how might this affect the clarity?

lens is made of protein which has a specefic shape\

preserving fluid makes the lens dentured → causes it to loose normal shape

lens becomes cloudy and opaque when exposed to certain amount of light or light scattering

15
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Increase or decrease of one pupil when the other pupil is exposed to a respective decrease or increase in light

Consensual reflex of pupil

16
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how does vitreous humor differ from aqueous humor in terms of location and viscosity

vitreos: posterior and thicker, aqueous: anterior, less viscous

17
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What tunic of the eye converts visible light into nerve impulses?

Retina

18
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What nerve takes the impulse of sight to the brain?

Optic Nerve

19
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white of the eye

sclera

20
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Gland produces tears

Lacrimal Gland

21
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What is the name of the transparent layer of the eye in front of the anterior chamber?

Cornea

22
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The iris of the eye has what function?

Central size of pupil

23
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Where is vitreous humor located?

posterior cavity in vitreous chamber

24
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Function of Choroid

nourish retina → blood vessel layer that supplies nutrients and oxygen

prevent blurry image

25
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Is the lens anterior or posterior to the iris?

Posterior

26
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Which retinal cells are responsible for vision in dim light?

Rods

27
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Minimum focusing distance of eye

Near point of eye → closest point your eye can clearly see

28
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A person with the vision can see at 20 ft. with an average sighted person can see at 100 ft

20/100 visual acuity

29
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Defect in cornea or lens that causes an uneven bending of the light rays in that area of the eye

Astigmatism

30
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In what area of the eye is the blind spot located?

Optic disc

31
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What are the three general regions of the ear?

external ,middle, inner

32
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The pinna of the ear consists of what two main parts?

helix and lobial

33
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The ear is what kind of receptor?

Mechanoreceptor

34
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The ear performs two major sensory functions. What are they?

Hearing and balance

35
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What structure separates the external ear from the middle ear?

tympanic membrane

36
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Name the three ear ossicles.

The malleus, incus, stapes

37
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What is the function of the cochlea?

Hearing

38
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What area is found between the scala vestibule and the scala tympani?

scala media

39
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What is the name of the nerve that takes information about balance and hearing to the brain?

vestibulocochlear nerve

40
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What units are used to measure sound energy?

Decibles

41
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What part of the inner ear is involved in perceiving static balance?

The vestibule

42
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Name the parts of the ear that might be impaired if a person demonstrates conduction deafness.

Conduction deafness occurs when sound waves cannot be properly transmitted through the outer or middle ear to the inner ear.

The tympanic membrane or ear ossicles would be impaired

43
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What two diagnostic tests are used to determine conduction deafness?

The weber test and rinne test

44
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What is the name of the tube that runs from the auricle to the tympanic membrane?

external acoustic meatus

45
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The auditory tube connects what two cavities?

tympanic cavity to the nasopharynx

46
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What tube is responsible for the equalization of pressure when you change elevation?

Auditory tube

47
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What is the name of the space that encloses the ear ossicles?

Tympanic cavity

48
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Place the ear ossicles in sequence from the tympanic membrane to the oval window

Tympanic membrane, malleus, incus, stapes, oval window

49
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Name all the parts of the inner ear

The cochlea, the vestibule, and the semicircular canals

50
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background noise affects hearing tests. in the tickin watch test or audiometer test what kind of result in terms of auditory sensitivity would you have recorded if moderate background noise were present

more hearing loss than present

Moderate background noise causes reduced apparent auditory sensitivity, because it masks quiet test sounds and makes hearing thresholds seem higher than they truly are.

51
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in the weber test the ear percieves the sound as being louder is the deaf ear. Why is this the case

The sound seems louder in the deaf ear because it has less background noise, so the tuning fork vibration is heard more clearly.

52
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if you have an infection in the inner ear that impacted the cochlea but not the vestibule what would be possibly impaired

hearing, perception of equilibrium intact

53
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What is the general name for organs that produce hormones?

Endocrine

54
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What is the name given to regions that are receptive to hormones?

Target tissues

55
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Melatonin is secreted by what gland?

Pineal gland

56
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In what specific part of what gland is ADH stored?

posterior pituitary

57
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What is the effect of TSH, and where is it produced?

stimulates thyroid gland to produce T3 and T4, anterior pituitary

58
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What does glucagon do as a hormone, and where is it produced?

Breaks down glycogen to glucose increasing blood glucose levels, found in pancreatic islets

59
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Which hormone in the adrenal gland control water and electrolyte balance?

corticosteroid hormone

60
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What is the primary gland that secrets epinephrine?

Adrenal medulla

61
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Where is growth hormone produced?

Anterior pituitary

62
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What is another name for T3?

Triiodothyronine

63
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What connects the two lobes of the thyroid gland?

Isthmus

64
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Does parathromone increase or decrease calcium levels in the blood?

Increase

65
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low blood calcium levels stimulate the parathyroid glands to secrete parathyroid hormone. explain how this is a negative feedbakc loop

Low calcium triggers PTH release, which raises calcium back to normal, and then PTH stops being released—this is negative feedback because the response cancels out the original change

66
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Formed elements consist of three main components. What are they?

Erythrocytes (red blood cells), thrombocytes (platelets), leukocytes (white blood cells)

67
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What is the most common plasma protein?

albumins

68
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What is another name for a thrombocyte?

platelets

69
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Which is the most common blood cell?

red blood cells (erythrocytes)

70
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What is another name for a white blood cell?

leukocytes

71
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What white blood cell is most numerous in a normal blood smear?

neutrophils

72
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How many red blood cells are normally found per cubic millimeter of blood?

about 5 million

73
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What is an average number of white blood cells found per cubic millimeter of blood?

5000-7000

74
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B cells and T cells belong to what class of agranular leukocytes?

lymphocytes

75
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What value is there to change in the percentage of white blood cells to diagnostic medicine?

may indicate the presence of disease/ infection

76
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In counting 100 white blood cells, you are accurately able to distinguish 15 basophils. Is this a normal number for the differential white blood cell count, and what possible health implications can you draw from this?

number too high → It is not normal, it is rare in normal people. This might mean the person has an infection. This causes increased swelling (histamine produces an inflammatory response.)

Increase in # during allergic and inflammatory reactions, exposure to radiation

Basophilia

77
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What is the function of the platelets?

they are involved in clotting

78
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Formed elements constitute what percentage of the total blood volume?

45%

79
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In terms of volume, dos the blood normally contain more plasma or more formed elements?

plasma (55%)

80
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a patient has a lympocyte count of 42% (above normal) of the total white blood cell count. what might be the clinical reason for this

patient is fighting viral infection, antigens in blood

81
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What is the name of a surface membrane molecule on a blood cell that causes an immune reaction?

Antigen

82
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What ABO blood type is found in a person who is a universal donor?

Blood type O negative

83
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What is the average range of hematocrit for a normal female?

Hematocrit is the percentage of blood volume made up of red blood cells

37-48%

84
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What is the average rand of hematocrit for a normal male?

40-58%

85
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What percentage of the blood volume consists of formed elements?

45%

86
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A person with blood type B has what type of antibodies?

anti-A

87
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A person has antibody A and antibody B in his or her blood with no Rh antibody. What blood type does this person have?

Type O Negative

88
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a total of 240 red blood cells are counted in the hemacytometer chamber. what is the red blood cell count of this person in cells per cubic millimeter

2 million, 400 thousand per cubic mill

89
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a person with blood type B negative is injected with type A positive blood. What will happen to the blood after being injected with this?

it will agglutinate and cause clotting

90
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how might changes in the pipette technique alter the final determine value of red blood cells? what kinds of errors might you expect

too many or not enough blood cells counted

91
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Define anemia.

decrease in the number of red blood cells in a given volume of blood or decrease in amount of hemoglobin in the blood

92
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explain the possible erroneous results you might get if you used just one toothpick to stir the various blood types in the ABO blood test

you could transfer aggultinin from one type to another

93
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The heart is located between the lungs in an area known as the

mediastinum

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What is the name of the layer that is superficial to the pericardial vacity

parietal pericardium

95
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What is the innermost layer of the heart wall caled

endocardium

96
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Is the apex of the heart superior or inferior to the rest of the heart

Inferior

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What is the name of the depression between the two ventricles on the anterior surface of the heart

Inter ventricular sulcus

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Are auricles extensions of the atria or the ventricles

Atria

99
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What three vessels take blood to the right atrium

coronary sinus, Superior Vena Cava, Inferior Vena Cava

100
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Where do the great cardiac vein and the small cardiac vein take blood?

To the coronary sinus, which then empties into right atrium