Wound Management and Healing Phases in Veterinary Medicine

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Last updated 6:53 PM on 6/19/26
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66 Terms

1
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What is the duration of the inflammatory phase of wound healing?

It begins immediately and lasts 3 to 5 days.

2
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What characterizes the inflammatory phase of wound healing?

Formation of a blood clot to control bleeding and stabilize wound edges.

3
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What types of cells are recruited during the inflammatory phase?

Macrophages and neutrophils.

4
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What is wound exudate?

A combination of white blood cells and fluid leaked from blood vessels and lymphatics.

5
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When does the proliferative phase of wound healing begin?

3 to 5 days after injury.

6
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What is the role of fibroblasts in the proliferative phase?

They invade the wound and deposit collagen, increasing wound strength.

7
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What is epithelialization?

The process where cells advance in a single layer across the wound until they meet in the middle.

8
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What happens during the maturation phase of wound healing?

Remodeling of collagen fibers occurs along tension lines, gaining maximum strength.

9
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What is the maximum strength a wound can regain after healing?

80% of its original strength.

10
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What patient factors can influence wound healing?

Age, concurrent health problems, nutrition status, and obesity.

11
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What is a clean wound classification?

Atraumatic and surgically created under aseptic conditions.

12
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What defines a clean contaminated wound?

Created by controlled surgical entry into contaminated areas with minimal contamination.

13
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What is a contaminated wound?

A recent traumatic wound with bacterial contamination.

14
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What characterizes a dirty wound?

An older wound with obvious infection, containing more than 10^5 bacterial organisms per gram of tissue.

15
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What are the effects of chemotherapy on wound healing?

It suppresses bone marrow function and decreases resistance to infection.

16
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What is the purpose of wound debridement?

To remove contaminated, devitalized, or necrotic tissue and eliminate foreign debris.

17
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What is surgical debridement?

The fastest and most aggressive method using a scalpel or scissors to remove large amounts of dead or contaminated tissue.

18
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What is staged debridement?

A cautious, multi-step approach used when the extent of tissue damage is unclear.

19
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What is en bloc debridement?

Complete excision of an entire wound in a single piece to remove all devitalized or contaminated tissue.

20
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What is mechanical debridement?

A method using wet-to-dry bandages for initial management of highly contaminated wounds.

21
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What is biological debridement?

Using specific maggot species to selectively debride dead tissue by ingesting necrotic and liquefied tissue.

22
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What is primary closure in wound management?

Surgical apposition of wound edges with sutures or staples, performed in fresh, clean wounds with little loss of soft tissue.

23
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What is delayed primary closure?

A method for wounds older than 6 to 8 hours, treated as open wounds initially to allow drainage and infection elimination before surgical closure.

24
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What is secondary closure?

Also known as third intention wound healing, it involves closing wounds older than 6 to 8 hours that have formed healthy granulation tissue.

25
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What is second intention wound healing?

Healing by granulation tissue formation and epithelialization, often used for infected or necrotic wounds.

26
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What are the disadvantages of second intention wound healing?

Lengthy healing time, high treatment costs, fragility of new epithelial tissue, potential for scarring, and poor cosmetic results.

27
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What is dead space in wound drainage?

Tissue layers pulled apart after surgery or trauma, filled with fluid or blood, which can slow healing and increase infection risk.

28
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What is a passive drain?

A drainage system that allows fluids to escape by gravity and capillary action, such as a Penrose drain.

29
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What is an active drain?

A drainage system that uses a vacuum to pull fluid into a container for measurement, like a rigid fenestrated drain.

30
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What is negative pressure wound therapy (NPWT)?

A treatment that applies controlled suction to reduce fluid, improve blood flow, and encourage granulation tissue formation.

31
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What are the signs of wound infection?

Swelling, heat, redness, lethargy, fever, pain associated with the wound, and changes in appetite and drinking.

32
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What types of wounds are classified as abrasions?

Partial-thickness dermal wounds that heal well by re-epithelialization, often seen in vehicular accident injuries.

33
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What are lacerations?

Wounds produced by tearing of skin and deeper tissues, which can be lavaged, debrided, and closed primarily if fresh and minimally contaminated.

34
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What are degloving injuries?

Injuries where a large section of skin is torn off from underlying tissue, often leading to severe tissue loss and requiring extensive wound care.

35
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What are penetrating wounds?

Wounds that include injuries from bites, bullets, or other objects, often contaminated and challenging to assess due to extensive underlying damage.

36
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What are the classifications of burns?

Burns are classified based on depth (first, second, third degree) and the size of the affected area.

37
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What characterizes a first-degree burn?

Superficial burns confined to the epidermis, resulting in reddened and painful skin that heals within 1 week.

38
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What are the characteristics of second-degree burns?

Involve full thickness epidermal and partial-thickness dermal injury, can be painful, and may heal with minimal scarring in 10 to 21 days.

39
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What defines a third-degree burn?

Full-thickness injuries characterized by a thick, leathery, black layer of dead tissue (eschar) and insensitivity to touch.

40
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What is required for the treatment of severe burns?

Extensive surgical interventions including eschar removal, wound debridement, and application of skin grafts and flaps if second intention healing is not possible.

41
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What are the systemic effects associated with fourth-degree burns?

Life-threatening systemic effects are likely.

42
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What tissues are involved in fourth-degree burns?

Tissue extending beyond the dermis, including muscle, tendon, and bone.

43
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What is necessary to prevent scarring in fourth-degree burns?

Surgical intervention is required to prevent scarring that restricts movement.

44
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What is the condition of animals with fourth-degree burns?

Animals with fourth-degree burns are critically ill and require intensive care to survive.

45
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What alternative has been used to treat burns when skin grafting is not an option?

Fish skin grafts have been used with some success.

46
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What are decubitus ulcers and how do they develop?

Decubitus ulcers, or pressure sores, develop over bony prominences due to skin compression on hard surfaces during long periods of recumbency.

47
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What are patients at risk for developing decubitus ulcers?

Patients with orthopedic and neurologic problems, extremely obese animals, and large or giant breed dogs with little soft tissue coverage over bony prominences.

48
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What is the most common location for decubitus ulcers?

The elbow (lateral or caudal surface of the olecranon).

49
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What is the primary focus in treating decubitus ulcers?

Efforts are focused on prevention.

50
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What surfaces should animals prone to ulcers be housed on?

Soft, clean, and dry surfaces.

51
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What is a common treatment for large ulcers that fail conservative treatment?

Advanced reconstructive surgery.

52
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What are the three layers of a bandage?

Primary (contacts the wound), Secondary (absorbs and supports), Tertiary (protective and non-occlusive).

53
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What is the purpose of a primary layer in bandaging?

To contact the wound.

54
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What does the secondary layer of a bandage do?

Absorbs and supports the wound.

55
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What is the role of the tertiary layer in a bandage?

To provide protection and is non-occlusive.

56
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What is non-selective mechanical debridement?

A method largely replaced by nonadherent primary layers, previously used wet to dry bandages.

57
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What is the purpose of the Robert Jones bandage?

To provide rigid, temporary immobilization of the distal limb for fractures or significant soft-tissue trauma.

58
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What is the Modified Robert Jones bandage used for?

To provide mild compression and protection for wounds, surgical incisions, or to reduce postsurgical swelling.

59
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What is the maximum duration for non-weight-bearing slings?

2 to 3 weeks to prevent muscle and joint contracture.

60
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What is the purpose of the Ehmer sling?

Used primarily after closed reduction of craniodorsal hip luxation to protect the hip joint.

61
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What is a tie-over bandage used for?

Applied to locations where traditional limb bandages cannot be used, such as axillary and inguinal areas.

62
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What are common signs of pressure necrosis?

Reddening of the skin with hair loss, white, purple, or black discoloration indicating severe damage.

63
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What is the risk of prolonged immobilization?

Can lead to muscle atrophy, contracture of soft tissues, and joint changes.

64
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What should be monitored in distal limb bandages?

Daily inspection of the toes for swelling or decreased viability.

65
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What complications can arise from a bandage that is too tight?

May impair blood flow, leading to swelling and possible tissue necrosis.

66
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What should clients be educated about regarding bandages?

Bandage care requirements and possible bandage-associated complications.