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What is a mutation?
An alteration to the DNA base sequence
When are mutations likely to occur?
During DNA replication (interphase)
Why might a mutation lead to a non-functioning protein?
Changes sequence of base triplets in DNA so changes sequence of codons on mRNA
This can result in a different amino acid sequence in the polypeptide
When the protein is modified into the tertiary structure, it will form hydrogen and ionic bonds in different places and fold differently
This results in a different 3D shape, and therefore a non-functioning protein
Explain why not all gene mutations affect the order of amino acids
Some substitutions change only 1 triplet code/codon which could still code for the same amino acid - as genetic code is degenerate
Some occur in introns which do not code for amino acids as they are removed during splicing
What is a mutagenic agent?
Factors that increase the rate of gene mutation
How does ionising radiation act as a mutagenic agent?
Radiation such as UV light and x-ray can cause damage and disrupt the structure of DNA
How do carcinogens act as mutagenic agents?
Chemicals alter the structure of DNA and interfere with transcription
What is a frameshift?
Occurs when mutations change the number of nucleotides/bases by a number not divisible by 3
Shifts the way the genetic code is read, so all the DNA triplets/mRNA codons downstream from the mutation change
Significant effect on the polypeptide
What is an addition mutation?
When an extra base is added to the DNA sequence
What is the effect of an addition mutation?
All subsequent triplets are altered - frameshift produced
All of the altered triplets could potentially code for different amino acids, resulting in a non-functioning protein
What is a deletion mutation?
1 or more bases/nucleotides are lost from the DNA base sequence
What is the effect of a deletion mutation?
All subsequent triplets are altered - frame shift
Altered triplets could code for different amino acids, resulting in a non-functioning protein
What is a substitution mutation?
When one or more bases/nucleotides in the DNA sequence is replaced by another
What are the possible effects of a substitution mutation?
No frame shift
Number of bases stay the same
One of 3 of the stop codons may be formed that mark the end of a polypeptide chain - production would be stopped prematurely
The new triplet/codon could code for a different amino acid - changes structure of the polypeptide
The new triplet/codon could code for the same amino acid as before as genetic code is degenerate - no effect
What is a duplication mutation?
When a sequence of bases/nucleotides duplicate and repeat
What is the effect of a duplication mutation?
Frame shift occurs
Amino acid sequence altered
3D shape is different so resulting protein is usually non-functional
What is an inversion mutation?
When a sequence of bases/nucleotides detaches from the DNA sequence, then rejoins at the same position in the reverse order
What is the effect of an inversion mutation?
The base sequence of the mutated portion is reversed which affects the amino acid sequence that results
What is a translocation mutation?
A sequence of DNA bases/nucleotides detaches and is inserted at a different location within the same or a different chromosome
What is the effect of a translocation mutation?
Produces a frameshift
Explain why a change in amino acid sequence is not always harmful
May not change tertiary structure of protein (if position of ionic/disulphide/hydrogen bonds dont change)
May positively change the properties of the protein, giving the organism a selective advantage
Describe cell differentiation
The process by which cells become specialised for different functions
What are stem cells?
Undifferentiated/unspecialised cells capable of:
Dividing by mitosis to replace themselves indefinitely/can continually divide
Differentiating into other types of specialised cells
They require constant replacement
Name the 4 types of stem cell
Totipotent stem cells
Pluripotent stem cells
Multipotent stem cells
Unipotent stem cells
What are totipotent stem cells?
Found in early embryo
Can divide and differentiate into any type of cell
What are pluripotent stem cells?
Found in embryos
Can divide and differentiate into almost any type of cell
What are multipotent stem cells? Give an example
Found in mature mammals
Can divide and differentiate into a limited number of cell types
Eg multipotent cells in bone marrow can divide and differentiate into different types of blood cell
What a unipotent cells? Give an example
Found in mature mammals
Can divide and differentiate into just one cell type
Eg unipotent cells in the heart can divide and differentiate into cardiomyocytes (cardiac muscle cells)
Describe how stem cells become specialised during development
Stimuli leads to the activation of some genes
So mRNA is transcribed only from these genes and then translated to form proteins
These proteins modify cells permanently and determine cell structure/function
Explain how induced pluripotent stem (iPS) cells are produced
Obtain adult body cells from patient (unipotent cell)
Add specific protein transcription factors associated with pluripotency to cells to turn on genes so they can be expressed
Culture cells to allow them to divide by mitosis
Explain how stem cells can be used in the treatment of human disorders
Transplanted into patients to divide in unlimited numbers
Then differentiate into required healthy cells
Evaluate the use of stem cells in treating human disorders
For:
Can divide and differentiate into required healthy cells, so could relieve human suffering
Embryos are often left over from IVF and so would rather be destroyed
iPS cells unlikely to be rejected by patients immune system as made with patients own cells
iPS cells can be made without destruction of embryo and adult can give permission
Against:
Ethical issues with embryonic stem cells as obtaining them requires destruction of an embryo and potential life
Immune system could reject cells and immunosuppressant drugs required
Cells could divide out of control, leading to formation of tumours/cancer
What is epigenetics?
A heritable change in gene function without change to the base sequence of DNA
What causes epigenetics? Give examples
Changes in the environment eg diet stress and toxins, which chemical tags on the epigenome respond to
Define epigenome
A single layer of chemical tags on the DNA which impacts the shape of the DNA-histone complex and whether the DNA is tightly wound or unwound
Define epigenetic silencing
The epigenome causes parts of DNA to be tightly wound, which means it wont be expressed
What happens if DNA is tightly wound?
Transcription factors cannot bind
Therefore, the epigenome (which determines how tightly wound it is) can inhibit transcription
What are transcriptional factors?
Molecules that move from the cytoplasm into the nucleus
Bind to a specific DNA base sequence on a promoter region
Regulate transcription of specific target genes
How do transcriptional factors cause transcription to begin?
Transcription factors move from cytoplasm to nucleus
Each transcriptional factor has a site that binds to a specific base sequence of DNA (promoter region)
When it binds, it stimulates this region of DNA to begin the process of transcription by helping RNA polymerase bind
Explain how oestrogen affects transcription
Oestrogen is a lipid-soluble steroid hormone so diffuses into cell across phospholipid bilayer
In cytoplasm, oestrogen bind with receptor molecule, inactive transcription factors, forming an oestrogen-receptor complex
This changes the shape of the DNA binding site on the inactive transcription factor, forming an active transcription factor which can now bind to DNA
The transcriptional factor can now diffuse into the nucleus
It binds to a specific DNA base sequence on the promoter region of a target gene
Stimulates transcription of target genes by helping RNA polymerase to bind
Why does oestrogen only affect target cells?
Other cells do not have oestrogen receptors
How does increased methylation of DNA affect gene transcription?
When methyl groups are added to DNA, they attach to the cytosine base
This prevents transcriptional factors from binding and attracts proteins that condense the DNA-histone complex
Prevents RNA polymerase binding to promoter
Therefore transcription is inhibited
How does decreased acetylation of histones affect gene transcription?
If acetyl groups are removed from the DNA then the histones becomes more positive and are attracted more to the phosphate group on DNA
So DNA becomes more tightly wound
DNA not accessible to transcription factors
Prevents RNA polymerase from binding to promoter
Inhibits transcription
Explain the relevance of epigenetics on disease development and treatment
Environmental factors can leads to epigenetic changes
These can stimulate or inhibit expression of certain genes that can lead to disease development
Diagnostic tests can be developed that detect these epigenetic changes before symptoms present
Drugs can be developed to reverse these epigenetic changes
What is RNA interface (RNAi)?
Inhibition of translation of mRNA produced from target genes, by types of RNA molecules such as siRNA and miRNA
This inhibits expression of a target gene (silences it)
Describe the regulation of translation by RNA interface involving siRNA
An enzyme cuts large double-stranded molecules of RNA into smaller sections called small interfering RNA (siRNA)
One of the 2 siRNA strands combines with an enzyme
The siRNA molecule guides the enzyme to a mRNA molecule by paring up its bases with the complementary ones on mRNA
The enzyme cuts the mRNA into smaller sections
The mRNA is no longer capable of being translated into a polypeptide
The gene cannot be expressed
What is cancer?
A result of mutations in genes that regulate mitosis, leading to uncontrolled cell division
Are benign tumours cancerous? Why?
No
They grow at a slow rate
Produce adhesion molecules, sticking them together and to a particular tissue and are surrounded by a capsule, so they remain compact and can be easily removed (impact is localised)
Are malignant tumours cancerous?
Yes
Explain how malignant tumours work
The cell nucleus becomes large and the cell can become unspecialised again
They do not reproduce the adhesive molecules, instead metastasis occurs - tumour breaks off and spreads to other parts of the body
Tumour isn’t encapsulated and instead can grow projections into surrounding tissues and develop its own blood supply
Compare the main characteristics of benign and malignant tumours
Benign tumours usually grow slowly (cells divide less often), malignant usually grow faster (cells divide more often)
In benign tumours, cells are well differentiated/specialised, in malignant tumours, cells become poorly differentiated/unspecialised
In benign tumours, cells have normal, regular nuclei, in malignant tumours, cells have irregular, darker nuclei
Benign tumours have well defined borders and are often surrounded by a capsule so do not invade surrounding tissue, malignant tumours have poorly defined borders and are not encapsulated so can invade surrounding tissues (grow projections)
Benign tumours do not spread by metastasis (due to cell adhesion molecules), malignant tumours spread by metastasis - cells break off and spread to other parts of body, forming secondary tumours (due to lack of adhesion molecules)
Benign tumours can normally be removed by surgery and rarely return, malignant tumours can normally be removed by surgery combines with radiotherapy/chemotherapy but often return
Describe the role of proto-oncogenes
Control cell division by coding for proteins that stimulate cell division
What are oncogees?
Mutated form of proto-oncogene
Explain how proto-oncogenes can be involved in developing cancer
A mutation in a proto-oncogene could turn it into a permanently activated oncogene
The oncogene could be permanently activated for 2 reasons:
The receptor protein on cell surface membrane can be permanently activated so cell division is switched on even in absence of growth factors
The oncogene may code for a growth factor that is then produced in excessive amounts, stimulating excessive cell division
They may also lead to decreased DNA methylation or increased histone acetylation which cause excess transcription
Results in uncontrolled cell division and formation of a tumour
Describe the function of tumour suppressor genes
Code for proteins that:
Inhibit/slow cell division
Causes self-destruction (apoptosis) of potential tumour cells
Explain the role of tumour suppressor genes in the development of tumours
If there is a mutation in DNA base sequence - amino acid sequence altered
Hypermethylation can cause tumour suppressor gene to become inactivated by inhibiting transcription so lack of tumour suppressor protein leads to tumour formation
Or it produces a non-functional protein - stops inhibiting cell division
Explain the relevance of epigenetics in cancer treatment
Drugs could reverse epigenetic changes that cause cancer -
Increasing DNA methylation or decreasing histone acetylation of oncogene to inhibit transcription
Decreasing DNA methylation or increasing histone acetylation of tumour suppressor gene to stimulate transcription
Explain the role of increased oestrogen concentrations in the development of some breast cancers
Some breast cancers have oestrogen receptors, which are inactive transcription factors
If oestrogen concentration is increased, more oestrogen binds to oestrogen receptors, forming more oestrogen-receptor complexes which are active transcription factors
These bind to promoter regions of genes that code for proteins stimulating cell division
This increases transcription, increasing the rate of cell division
Suggest how drugs that have a similar structure to oestrogen help treat some breast cancers
Drugs bind to oestrogen receptors (inactive transcription factors), preventing binding of oestrogen
So no/fewer transcription factors bind to promoter regions of genes that stimulate cell division
What is the genome?
The complete set of genetic information contained in the cells of an organism
What is genome sequencing?
Identifying the DNA base sequence for all the DNA in a cell so amino acid sequences of proteins that derive from an organisms genetic code can be determined
What is the proteome?
The complete set of proteins that can be produced by a cell
Do prokaryotic cells contain introns?
No
Can the genome be used to sequence to proteome?
In simpler organisms - yes. As they do not contain introns in their DNA
In complex organisms - no. As they have introns and regulatory genes
Give an application of sequencing the proteome in simple organisms
Identifying potential antigens for use in vaccine production
Suggest some other potential applications of genome sequencing projects
Identification of genes/alleles associated with genetic diseases - new targeted drugs/gene therapy can be developed or can screen patients, allowing early prevention/personalised medicine
Identification of species and evolutionary relationships
Describe how sequencing methods are changing
They have become automated (so are faster, more cost-effective and can be done on a larger scale)
They are continuously updated
What is recombinant DNA technology?
The combining of different organisms DNA, which could enable scientists to manipulate and alter genes to improve industrial processes and medical treatments
Why does recombinant DNA technology work?
Because the genetic code is universal, so transcription and translation result in the same amino acid sequence across organisms
Give 3 methods to create fragments of DNA for recombinant DNA technology
Reverse transcription
Restriction endonucleases
Gene machine
Explain the process of using reverse transcriptase to produce DNA fragments
A cell that naturally produces the protein of interest is selected
These cells should have large amounts of mRNA for the protein
mRNA is isolated and mixed with DNA nucleotides and reverse transcriptase
Reverse transcriptase enzyme joins the DNA nucleotides with complementary bases to the mRNA sequence
Single stranded DNA is made (cDNA)
To make this DNA fragment double stranded, DNA polymerase is used
Suggest 2 advantages of obtaining genes from mRNA rather than directly from the DNA removed from cells
Much more mRNA in cells making the protein than DNA - easily extracted
cDNA is intron free because it is based on the mRNA template. In mRNA, introns have been removed by splicing. So it can be transcribed and translated by prokaryotes who cant remove introns by splicing
Explain the process of using restriction endonucleases to produce DNA fragments
Restriction endonucleases are enzymes that cut up DNA at specific base ‘recognition sequences’ either side of the desired gene
Different REs have different active sites complementary to a range of different DNA base sequences
Some enzymes cut in the same location in double strand to create a blunt end, others cut to create staggered ends and exposed DNA bases
The exposed staggered ends are referred to as sticky ends as they have the ability to join DNA with complementary base pairs
Explain the process of using gene machine to produce DNA fragments
DNA fragments can be created in a lab using a computerised machine
Scientists first examine the protein of interest to identify the amino acid sequence, and work out what the mRNA and DNA sequence would be
The DNA sequence is entered into he computer, which checks for biosafety and biosecurity that the DNA being created is safe and ethical to produce
The computer can create small sections of overlapping single strands of nucleotides that make up the gene, called oligonucleotides
The oligonucleotides can then be joined to created the DNA for the entire gene
PCR can be used to amplify the quantity and to make the double strand
In which 2 ways can we amplify DNA fragments? Give examples of each
In vitro (outside a living organism) - polymerase chain reaction
In vivo (inside a living organism) - transferring the fragments to host cell using vector
Explain the importance of sticky ends
If same restriction endonuclease is used to cut DNA, then all fragments produced will have ends that are complementary to each other
This allows us to combine strands of DNA from different organisms
Describe the reaction mixture required for PCR
DNA fragments to be amplified
DNA polymerase
Primers - short, single stranded sequence of nucleotides that are complementary to base sequences at the ends of the DNA fragments
Nucleotides to match up to exposed bases
Thermocycler - machine that varies the temperature
Explain how DNA fragments can be amplified by PCR
Separate of DNA strand - mixture heated to 95C which separates DNA strands by breaking hydrogen bonds between bases
Addition of primers - mixture cooled to 55C, causing primers to join (anneal) to their complementary bases at the ends of DNA fragment strands by forming hydrogen bonds between complementary bases. This is because DNA polymerase can only attach nucleotides to the end of an existing chain
Synthesis of DNA - mixture heated to 72C, optimum temperature for DNA polymerase to join complementary nucleotides to exposed bases along each of the separated DNA strands, forming phosphodiester bonds
Explain the role of primers in PCR
Primers are short, single stranded DNA fragments
Complementary to DNA base sequences at edges of region to be copied
Allows DNA polymerase to bind to start synthesis, as it can only add nucleotides onto an existing chain
2 different primers are requires as base sequences at ends are different
They also prevent the 2 separate strands from rejoining
Suggest one reason why DNA replication eventually stops in PCR
There are a limited number of primers and nucleotides which are eventually used up
Explain why promoter and terminator regions are added to DNA fragments that are used to genetically modify organisms
Promoter regions allow transcription to start by allowing RNA polymerase to bind to DNA near the gene to be transcribed
Terminator regions ensure transcription stops at the ends of a gene by stopping RNA polymerase
What are the roles of vectors in in vivo gene cloning?
Used to transport the DNA into the host cell
Explain the process of inserting a DNA fragments into a vector
Restriction endonucleases cut vector DNA - the same type that was used to cut the gene out so vector DNA and DNA fragments have sticky ends that can join by complementary base pairing
DNA ligase joins DNA fragment to vector DNA by forming phosphodiester bonds between adjacent nucleotides