Comprehensive Guide to Medical Consent and Advance Directives

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Last updated 9:49 PM on 6/23/26
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219 Terms

1
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What is an advance directive?

A legal document that allows individuals to outline their preferences for medical treatment in case they become unable to communicate their wishes.

2
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What does 'age of majority' refer to?

The age at which a person is considered an adult and can make their own legal decisions.

3
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Who is an agent in the context of healthcare decisions?

An individual authorized to make healthcare decisions on behalf of another person.

4
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What is the Belmont Report?

A report that outlines ethical principles and guidelines for research involving human subjects.

5
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What does 'capacity' mean in healthcare?

The ability of a patient to understand the information relevant to a healthcare decision and to make an informed choice.

6
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What defines a competent adult?

An adult who has the mental capacity to make informed decisions about their own healthcare.

7
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What is consent in a medical context?

The agreement by a patient to undergo a medical procedure after being informed of the risks, benefits, and alternatives.

8
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What is a Do Not Resuscitate (DNR) order?

A legal order to withhold cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) in the event of cardiac arrest.

9
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What is a Durable Power of Attorney (DPOA)?

A legal document that designates someone to make decisions on behalf of another person if they become incapacitated.

10
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What is a Durable Power of Attorney for Healthcare Decisions (DPOA-HCD)?

A specific type of DPOA that allows an agent to make healthcare decisions for the principal.

11
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Who are emancipated minors?

Minors who have been granted legal independence from their parents or guardians.

12
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What is express consent?

Consent that is clearly communicated through words, either spoken or written.

13
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What is the Federal Policy for the Protection of Human Subjects (Common Rule)?

A set of regulations that govern the ethical conduct of research involving human subjects.

14
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What is general consent?

A broad consent that allows healthcare providers to perform necessary medical interventions.

15
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What is the Good Samaritan statute?

A law that protects individuals from liability when they provide assistance in an emergency situation.

16
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What is a Guardian ad Litem?

A person appointed by the court to represent the best interests of a minor or incapacitated person.

17
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What is implied (tacit) consent?

Consent inferred from a person's actions or the circumstances, rather than explicitly stated.

18
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What defines an incompetent adult?

An adult who lacks the mental capacity to make informed decisions about their healthcare.

19
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What is informed consent?

Consent given by a patient who has been fully informed about the risks, benefits, and alternatives of a treatment.

20
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What is an Institutional Review Board (IRB)?

A committee that reviews research proposals to ensure ethical standards are met in studies involving human subjects.

21
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What is a living will?

A legal document that outlines a person's wishes regarding medical treatment in the event they become unable to communicate.

22
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What is the National Research Act of 1974?

Legislation that established regulations for the protection of human subjects in research.

23
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What does 'non compos mentis' mean?

A legal term indicating that a person is not of sound mind and cannot make decisions.

24
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What is the Patient Self-Determination Act (PSDA)?

A law that requires healthcare providers to inform patients of their rights to make decisions about their medical care.

25
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What is a Power of Attorney (POA)?

A legal document that grants someone the authority to act on another person's behalf in legal matters.

26
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Who is the principal in a power of attorney arrangement?

The person who grants authority to another person (the agent) to act on their behalf.

27
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What is therapeutic privilege?

The right of a physician to withhold information from a patient if disclosing it could cause harm.

28
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What is the Uniform Anatomical Gift Act (UAGA)?

A law that regulates the donation of organs and tissues for transplantation.

29
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What is the Uniform Health-Care Decisions Act (UHCDA)?

A law that provides a framework for making healthcare decisions on behalf of individuals who are unable to do so.

30
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Why is documentation of informed consent important?

It ensures a complete and accurate health record that is legally sound and demonstrates quality patient care.

31
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What must be verified by staff before a physician begins a procedure?

The presence of signed informed consent forms.

32
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What historical events led to the establishment of the Nuremberg Code?

Human experimentation on concentration camp prisoners by Nazi physicians.

33
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What federal policy governs research on human subjects?

The Federal Policy for the Protection of Human Subjects (Common Rule).

34
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What are the requirements of the Common Rule?

Compliance assurances, informed consent requirements, and special protections for vulnerable populations.

35
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What must researchers obtain from study participants according to the Common Rule?

Informed consent.

36
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What should an informed consent document include?

A statement about the research, risks, benefits, alternatives, confidentiality, and voluntary participation.

37
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What are the potential risks of failing to obtain informed consent?

Liability for battery or negligence.

38
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What is an exception to the requirement for informed consent?

Situations where it is not feasible to obtain consent prior to an intervention.

39
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What does the Privacy Rule of HIPAA address?

Informed consent for research through its authorization requirements.

40
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What must researchers obtain consent for besides medical interventions?

The use and disclosure of participants' medical information for research purposes.

41
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What happens if a healthcare provider performs an intervention without consent?

They risk being sued for battery.

42
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What is the significance of the National Research Act of 1974?

It was a response to the Tuskegee Syphilis Study and aimed to protect human subjects in research.

43
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What are the basic elements of informed consent for human subjects research?

Research purpose, duration, procedures, risks, benefits, alternatives, confidentiality, and voluntary participation.

44
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What is required for research involving more than minimal risk?

An explanation of compensation and medical treatments available if injury occurs.

45
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What should participants be informed about regarding their rights?

They may refuse participation without penalty and can discontinue at any time.

46
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What is the role of the IRB in the informed consent process?

To approve research proposals and ensure informed consent is obtained.

47
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What is a compound authorization in research consent?

A combination of informed consent with authorization for the use and disclosure of health information.

48
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What is the significance of signed consent forms in patient health records?

They are crucial for compliance with CMS and Joint Commission standards.

49
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What must be disclosed to research participants regarding confidentiality?

The extent to which confidentiality of records identifying the subject will be maintained.

50
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What are the consequences of not fully informing a patient about risks or alternatives?

Potential negligence lawsuits if harm occurs.

51
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What is the purpose of the Common Rule's special protections?

To safeguard vulnerable populations such as prisoners and children in research.

52
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What type of consent is often required for using human tissue specimens in research?

Consent must be obtained unless waived by an IRB.

53
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What should participants be informed about regarding study withdrawal?

Procedures for withdrawal and any potential costs involved.

54
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What is the significance of the 1991 adoption of HHS regulations?

It established protections for human subjects in research across multiple federal agencies.

55
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What is the general requirement for medical treatment regarding consent?

Informed consent is generally required.

56
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Under what circumstances can consent be presumed?

In emergency situations where treatment is necessary to prevent life-threatening conditions.

57
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What protects healthcare providers from liability in emergency situations?

Good Samaritan statutes.

58
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What is the rationale behind Good Samaritan laws?

To ensure providers are not deterred from rendering aid due to fear of being sued.

59
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When might consent not be freely given in medical contexts?

When ordered by a court or governmental action.

60
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What must drivers consent to when suspected of DUI in many states?

Blood alcohol tests.

61
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What happens if a driver refuses to consent to a blood alcohol test in Oregon?

Their driver's license may be suspended and the refusal can be used as evidence in court.

62
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What can the government order individuals to undergo concerning infectious diseases?

Specific medical tests or interventions.

63
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What must courts have to order physical or mental examinations in civil cases?

Good cause.

64
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What is the legal term for when an individual is deemed not of sound mind?

Non compos mentis.

65
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What can courts order if a defendant invokes an insanity defense?

Psychiatric or psychological examinations.

66
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What is required for a patient to waive their right to informed consent?

The waiver must be initiated by the patient and associated only with low-risk treatments.

67
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What is the Common Rule regarding informed consent in research studies?

The requirement may be waived or altered if approved by an Institutional Review Board (IRB).

68
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What conditions must be met for an IRB to approve a waiver of informed consent?

Minimal risk, no adverse effect on rights and welfare, and impracticality of carrying out research without the waiver.

69
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What is the role of a power of attorney (POA)?

To grant legal authority to an agent to make decisions on behalf of a principal.

70
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What must be specified in a power of attorney document?

The specific authority granted to the agent.

71
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What can advance directives restrict?

The use of ventilators, artificial nutrition and hydration, and other types of life support.

72
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What is the significance of communication in informed consent?

It is key for ensuring that patients understand their healthcare options.

73
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What happens when a patient's health status makes communication impossible?

Advance directives provide a means to communicate healthcare wishes.

74
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What is the government's interest in ordering medical tests for infectious diseases?

To protect public health.

75
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What does 'good cause' refer to in the context of court-ordered examinations?

A legal justification required for courts to mandate physical or mental examinations.

76
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What is the consequence of a patient waiving informed consent?

It subjects the provider to legal risks.

77
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What must be documented when a patient waives informed consent?

The patient's affirmation and the details of the treatment.

78
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What is the purpose of advance directives?

To communicate healthcare wishes in advance of incapacity.

79
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What is the primary focus of Good Samaritan laws?

To encourage aid in emergencies without fear of legal repercussions.

80
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What does 'capacity' mean in the context of a POA?

It indicates that an individual is mentally competent and in control of their decisions.

81
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What is a springing POA?

A DPOA that only takes effect when the principal becomes incapacitated.

82
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What is another name for a DPOA-HCD?

It can also be referred to as a medical POA or healthcare proxy.

83
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Who typically determines if a patient is incompetent?

A physician or a judge.

84
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What must a DPOA-HCD document contain to be considered durable?

Specific language defined by state law stating that the agent's authority is not terminated by the principal's incapacity.

85
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What rights does an agent have under a DPOA-HCD?

The agent can make healthcare decisions and exercise the principal's HIPAA privacy rights related to those decisions.

86
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What should a principal do after executing a DPOA-HCD?

Inform friends, family, and healthcare providers about the document and provide copies.

87
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How can a DPOA-HCD be revoked?

By express communication showing the principal's intent to revoke, made to the agent and healthcare providers.

88
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When does a living will typically take effect?

When two or more physicians certify that a patient has a terminal condition or is in a persistent unconscious state.

89
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What types of treatment are typically limited by living wills?

Life-prolonging procedures such as CPR, artificial nutrition, and ventilation.

90
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What are common requirements for executing a living will?

Must be written, signed, dated, and witnessed or acknowledged before a notary.

91
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What should individuals do after executing a living will?

Communicate its existence to friends, family, and healthcare providers, and keep a copy in an accessible place.

92
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How can a living will be revoked?

Through an express act or statement indicating intent to revoke, which can be oral or written.

93
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What is the relationship between a DPOA-HCD and a living will?

Both can coexist; however, conflicts may arise regarding treatment decisions when the principal is incapacitated.

94
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What happens if a principal and agent become divorced regarding a DPOA-HCD?

Some DPOA-HCDs automatically revoke the instrument if the principal and agent are separated or divorced.

95
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What is the primary purpose of a DPOA?

To allow an agent to make decisions on behalf of the principal in financial or legal matters.

96
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What is the significance of state law in relation to DPOA and DPOA-HCD?

State law defines the specific language and requirements for creating and executing these documents.

97
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What is the role of healthcare providers regarding DPOA-HCDs?

They are required to store copies prominently in the patient's record and may rely on them for decision-making.

98
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What should be done if a principal executes a second DPOA-HCD?

The previous DPOA-HCD is automatically revoked.

99
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What is a healthcare directive?

An alternative term for a living will, used in some states to define advance directives.

100
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What is the importance of advance directive registries?

They allow individuals to store their advance directives online for timely retrieval when needed.