MICROBIOLOGY 4TH LE

In general, all of the ff are characteristics of fungi EXCEPT:
A. Distinct nucleus
B. Cytoplasmic organelles with membranes
C. Chitin as Major polysaccharide
D. NOTA

D. NOTA

The aerial mycelia is for:
A. Reproduction
B. Nutrition
C. Anchor
D. Osmosis

A. Reproduction

The most common mounting medium to study fungi in skin scrapings and hairs because of the ability to lyze keratin:
A. PAS
B. 10% KOH
C. India Ink
D. LPCB

B. 10% KOH

A mass of intertwined hyphal elements is called
A. Mycelium
B. Rhizoids
C. Conidia
D. Arthrospores

A. Mycelium

Primary isolation culture media used for dermatophytes:
A. SDA - Sabouraud dextrose agar
B. Nutrient agar
C. BHI agar
D. MacConkey agar

A. SDA - Sabouraud dextrose agar

The most common superficial mycoses affecting the hair shafts are:
A. Black piedra
B. Tinea versicolor
C. Tinea nigra
D. Tinea corporis

A. Black piedra

In general, KOH of skin scrapings for Malassezia will show
A. Budding yeast cells
B. Hyphal elements
C. Both A and B “spaghetti and meatballs”
D. Neither A nor B

C. Both A and B “spaghetti and meatballs”

Subcutaneous mycoses are found worldwide and the organisms are common soil saphrophytes. Which of the following route will these agents of SQ mycoses are introduced to the host?
A. Ingestion
B. Traumatic implantation
C. Inhalation of airborne droplets
D. Inhalation of conidia

B. Traumatic implantation

Finding “sulfur granules” in a wound is indicative of infection due to:
A. Candida albicans
B. Cryptococcus neoformans
C. Sporothrix schenckii
D. Actinomyces israelli

D. Actinomyces israelli

Eumycotic mycetoma can be differentiated from actinomycotic mycetoma by the presence of
A. Fine branching bacilli
B. Wide septate hyphae
C. Flask shaped phialides
D. Presence of arthrospores

B. Wide septate hyphae

In contrast to prokaryotic organisms, the electron transport chain in eukaryotes is found in the
A. Cell wall
B. Cell membrane
C. Plasmids
D. Mitochondria

D. Mitochondria

Yeasts are ____ fungi and molds are _____ fungi.
A. Microscopic, microscopic
B. Unicellular, filamentous
C. Motile, non-motile
D. Water, terrestrial

B. Unicellular, filamentous

These structures are rarely seen in the human host
A. Reproductive mycelium
B. Vegetative
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B

A. Reproductive mycelium

Detection of Cryptococcus neoformans from the CSF can best be done using
A. Gram stain
B. LPCB
C. India Ink
D. Methylene blue

C. India Ink

Ectothrix hair invasion can be detected using this equipment which shows bright green yellow fluorescence:
A. Wood’s UV lamp
B. Brightfield microscope
C. Henry’s illumination
D. Calcoufluor white

A. Wood’s UV lamp

Which of the ff causes a subcutaneous fungal disease characterized by swelling of sinus tracts with presence of granules?
A. Aspergillus
B. Mycetoma
C. Sporothrix
D. Cladosporium

B. Mycetoma

Systemic (deep) mycoses are commonly acquired by:
A. Oral route
B. Inhalation of spores
C. Skin contact
D. Parenteral route

B. Inhalation of spores

One of the ff fungi DOES NOT cause hair infection
A. Epidermophyton floccosum
B. Microsporum canis
C. Trichosporon beigelli
D. Trichophyton mentagrophytes

A. Epidermophyton floccosum

Regarding Histoplasma capsulatum and Blastomyces dermatitidis, which one of the ff is least accurate?
A. Humoral immunity is the main host defense against the organism
B. Both are classified as true systemic mycoses
C. Both organisms are dimorphic
D. Both organisms exist as yeast in the patient

A. Humoral immunity is the main host defense against the organism

Which of the ff fungal diseases presents with raised, colored, cauliflower-like lesions and with sclerotic bodies in tissue specimens?
A. Candidiasis
B. Actinomycotic mycetoma
C. Chromoblastomycosis
D. Sporotrichosis

C. Chromoblastomycosis

Aseptate hyphae seen in Rhizopus spp are also called
A. Mycelia
B. Coenocytic hyphae
C. Pseudohyphae
D. Sclerotia

B. Coenocytic hyphae

All of the ff are classified as sexual spores EXCEPT
A. Ascospores
B. Basidiospores
C. Zygospores
D. Sporangiospores

D. Sporangiospores

What is the environment form of most dimorphic fungi?
A. Mold form as hyphal elements
B. Yeast form – inside body
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B

A. Mold form as hyphal elements

The disease caused by eating /consuming fungi-mushrooms is called
A. Mycoses
B. Mycotoxicoses
C. Mycetisimus
D. Phycoses

C. Mycetisimus

In general, fungal infections are called
A. Mycoses
B. Mycotoxicoses
C. Mycetisimus
D. Phycoses

A. Mycoses

Which of the ff is TRUE about pneumocystis jirovecii?
A. Formerly known as P. carinii
B. Causes pneumonia
C. May not be a problem except for people with weakened immune system
D. All of the options given are correct

D. All of the options given are correct

Pneumocystis jirovecii was once classified as protozoa because of the presence of
A. Spores
B. Trophozoites
C. Hyphae
D. Conidia

B. Trophozoites

Which of the following is the stage or form of P. jirovecii causes problem in humans affected?
A. Cysts
B. Trophozoite
C. Hyphae
D. Conidia

B. Trophozoite

Which of the ff is NOT correct about P. jirovecii?
A. It causes AIDS presenting illness
B. It is a classic example of an opportunistic infection
C. The organism is dimorphic
D. Many other species may infect other animals

D. Many other species may infect other animals

Candida is a normal human commensal, but candidiasis is now also the leading human fungal infection. This statement is:
A. True
B. False

A. True

How are fungi different from bacteria?
A. Fungi are eukaryotic with true nucleus, 80s ribosomes, mitochondria, and ER
B. Bacteria are prokaryotic, no true nucleus, 70s ribosomes, and no ER
C. Both fungi and bacteria contain cell wall and cell membrane contains sterols
D. A and B are correct

D. A and B are correct

What is the difference between molds and yeasts?
A. Molds are filamentous and grow by branching hyphae
B. Yeasts are single celled and reproduce by budding
C. Pseudohyphae and blastoconidia are present in both
D. A and B are correct

D. A and B are correct

Sabouraud Dextrose Agar (SDA) is the primary isolation media used to isolate fungi because:
A. It is highly selective media for fungal isolation
B. Its low pH inhibits bacterial growth
C. Only molds will grow and yeasts like cryptococcus and candida will be inhibited
D. all of the above

D. all of the above

Which of the following situations that allows fungal microorganisms to be introduced into the host would NOT result in dermatophyte infection?
A. A child playing with a family cat
B. Walking barefoot around swimming pool
C. Two children playing together in the soil
D. Inhalation of conidia

D. Inhalation of conidia

These structures are often seen in the human host
A. Reproductive mycelium
B. Vegetative mycelium
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B

B. Vegetative mycelium

Which of the following is/are TRUE about fungi conidia?
A. Conidia are specialized nonmotile structure with asexual spores formed from an extension of the hyphal wall
B. Fungi can also have sexual sporulation
C. Asexual sporulation is more common among medically important fungi
D. A, B, C

D. A, B, C

What is dimorphic fungus?
A. Dimorphic fungus can exist as either yeast or mold depending upon its environment
B. They are usually yeast form at body temperature
C. They are usually mold form in the saprobic phase
D. A, B, C

D. A, B, C

Which of the ff statements does not describe sporotrichosis?
A. The infection is initiated by traumatic inoculation of the organism into the skin
B. It is a chronic infection of the cutaneous and subcutaneous tissues
C. Secondary spread does not occur
D. It involves the draining lymphatics

C. Secondary spread does not occur

The most common form of sporotrichosis is
A. Skeletal
B. Mucosal
C. Lymphocutaneous
D. Disseminated

C. Lymphocutaneous

Which of the following fungi CANNOT cause chromoblastomycosis
A. Phialophora verrucosa
B. Cladosporium carrionii
C. Sporothrix schenckii
D. Fonsecaea compacta

C. Sporothrix schenckii

The disease sporotrichosis is also called
A. Spelunker’s disease
B. Gilchrist’s diseases
C. Chromomycosis
D. Rose gardener’s diseases

D. Rose gardener’s diseases

Human and Animal infection characterized by draining sinuses and granules vary in size, color, and hardness:
A. Mycetoma
B. Chromomycosis
C. Sporotrichosis
D. Zygomycosis

A. Mycetoma

Madura foot is caused by
A. Madurella mycetomatis
B. Sporothrix schenckii
C. Cladosporium carrionii
D. Fonsecaea compacta

A. Madurella mycetomatis

Flask shaped or elliptical phialides with flaring collarettes is a morphological characteristic of:
A. Phialophora verrucosa
B. Cladosporium carrionii
C. Sporothrix schenckii
D. Fonsecaea compacta

A. Phialophora verrucosa

In actinomycotic mycetoma,
A. There is no bone involvement; antibiotic effective
B. There is bone destruction and amputation is needed
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B

A. There is no bone involvement; antibiotic effective

Which of the ff are NOT classified as etiologic agents of eumycotic mycetoma?
A. Curvularia
B. Fusarium
C. Madurella
D. Nocardia

D. Nocardia

Mycetoma is an infection characterized by tumefaction where there is:
A. Destruction of bone
B. Distortion of foot or hand
C. Hyperplasia at openings of sinus tracts
D. A, B, and C

D. A, B, and C

Daisy-like microconidia with short conidiospores at right angle from this hyphae are characteristic of
A. Madurella mycetomatis
B. Sporothrix schenckii
C. Cladosporium carrionii
D. Fonsecaea compacta

B. Sporothrix schenckii

Which of the following are the characteristics of opportunistic mycoses?
A. Host is abrogated/compromised
B. Recovery depends on the severity of impairment of host defense
C. There is no specific resistance to infections
D. A, B and C

D. A, B and C

All of the following are characteristics of Aspergillus fumigatus except:
A. accounts for over 90% of all fungal infections
B. grown in a wide range of temperature can thrive up to 50°C
C. Inhibited by cycloheximide
D. A, B and C

D. A, B and C

Demonstration of fungal organism in the tissues characterized by septate hyphae, dichotomous hyphae and spores is typical of:
A. aspergillosis
B. candidiasis
C. mucormycosis
D. cryptococcus

A. aspergillosis

Which of the following opportunistic fungi does not have aseptated hyphae?
A. Absidia
B. Rhizomucor
C. Rhizopus
D. C. albicans

D. C. albicans

An opportunistic fungal infection found worldwide in the soil and bird guano in pigeon roosts is:
A. Aspergillus flavus
B. Penicillium spp
C. C. neoformans
D. H. capsulatum

D. H. capsulatum

Which is not true of Cryptococcus spp?
A. encapsulated yeast
B. reproduces by budding
C. capsule is the basis for the 4 serotypes
D. mold form usually exists

D. mold form usually exists

Which of the following clinical specimens should be collected to confirm diagnosis of VZV infection?
A. Cerebral spinal fluid
B. Vesicle fluid
C. Blood
D. Saliva

B. Vesicle fluid

Which of the following viral families is known to be causally associated with tumor formation in healthy appearing human adults?
A. Papovaviruses
B. Paramyxoviruses
C. Flaviviruses
D. Polyoma viruses

A. Papovaviruses

HIV ELISA test is an example of:
A. Quality control test
B. Confirmatory test
C. Screening test

C. Screening test

Viral genome detection can be done by all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Hybridization with specific nucleic acid probes
B. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
C. Serology and cell culture
D. All of the choices

C. Serology and cell culture

In this assay, counting the number of growths on plates directly determines the number of infectious virus particles applied to the plate. This is called:
A. Immunodiffusion test
B. CPE or cytopathic effect
C. Neutralization test
D. Plaque assay

D. Plaque assay

Which of the following events led to reappearance of acute respiratory disease outbreaks among U.S. military recruits in the late 1990’s?
A. Cessation of adenovirus antiviral drug therapy program for recruits
B. Change in military housing and training conditions for recruits
C. Emergence of a new virulent strain of adenovirus
D. Cessation of adenovirus vaccination program for recruits

D. Cessation of adenovirus vaccination program for recruits

______ is a guanosine analog DNA polymerase inhibitor used for the treatment of HSV and varicella-zoster virus infections:
A. Acyclovir
B. Ganciclovir
C. Amantadine
D. Oseltamivir

A. Acyclovir

Which of the following cell types are specific to a latent genital infection with HSV-2?
A. Vagal nerve ganglia
B. Trigeminal ganglia
C. Sacral ganglia
D. Neural sensory ganglia

C. Sacral ganglia

A normally healthy 7-year-old girl is sent home from school with a suspected case of fifth disease as a result of her presenting with the initial symptoms of the infection. After being at home for a few days, her symptoms change indicating her transition into the second phase of the illness. Which of the following symptoms is the girl most likely experiencing during the second phase of parvoviral infection?
A. Diarrhea
B. Skin rash
C. High fever
D. Aplastic crisis

B. Skin rash

Direct antigen detection of viruses can be done by:
A. Immunofluorescence
B. ELISA
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B

C. Both A and B

Vaccination with the vaccinia (smallpox) vaccine protects against infections by the following poxviruses EXCEPT:
A. Monkeypox
B. Cowpox
C. Variola
D. Molluscum contagiosum

D. Molluscum contagiosum

In Complement Fixation Test or CFT, a positive test to detect the presence of antibody is indicated by:
A. Precipitation reactions
B. Button formation
C. Hemolysis
D. No hemolysis

D. No hemolysis

Vaccinia virus has all of the following attributes EXCEPT:
A. Gene sequences coding for other viral proteins can be inserted into its genome
B. Can induce immunity that last only a few years
C. Can cause severe localized or disseminated disease
D. Is a live, attenuated smallpox virus

D. Is a live, attenuated smallpox virus

Which of the following test is considered confirmatory for HIV?
A. Hemagglutination inhibition
B. Northern blot
C. Western blot
D. ELISA

C. Western blot

What adenovirus proteins comprises the majority of capsomers making up the virus capsid?
A. Hexon
B. Penton
C. Terminal protein
D. Fiber

A. Hexon

The following statements regarding the poxvirus are correct EXCEPT:
A. They are the largest and most complex of all animal viruses
B. They are non-enveloped DNA viruses
C. They multiply in the cytoplasm
D. Their site of multiplication within infected cells appear as inclusion bodies

B. They are non-enveloped DNA viruses

Each of the following statements concerning adenoviruses is correct EXCEPT:
A. Adenoviruses have only one serologic type
B. Adenoviruses are composed of a double-stranded DNA genome and a capsid without an envelope
C. Adenoviruses cause both sore throat and pneumonia
D. Adenoviruses are implicated as a cause of tumors in animals but not humans

A. Adenoviruses have only one serologic type

This test is used to detect the presence of antibodies in response of patient to infection e.g., viral infection:
A. Serology
B. Gene probes
C. Electron microscopy
D. Immunofluorescence

A. Serology

Which of the following conditions would put an individual at increased risk for serious chronic illness following an infection with parvovirus B19?
A. Caring for a pet with canine parvoviral infection
B. Immunization with a live measles vaccine
C. Coinfection with influenza A virus
D. Having sickle cell disease

D. Having sickle cell disease

In the preservation and storage of viruses, which of the choices below is considered most practical in clinical laboratories?
A. 0°C
B. -20°C
C. Liquid nitrogen
D. -70°C

D. -70°C

The eradication of smallpox was facilitated by several features of the virus. Which one of the following contributed LEAST to eradication?
A. Inapparent infection is rare
B. It has one antigenic type
C. Administration of live vaccine reliably induces immunity
D. It multiplies in the cytoplasm of infected person

D. It multiplies in the cytoplasm of infected person

With which of the following is virus always detectable after infections?
A. Cytomegalovirus
B. Varicella-zoster
C. Hepatitis B
D. Herpes simplex

C. Hepatitis B

Serological tests are used to detect antibodies in a patient’s sample are based on:
A. Rising titers of antibody between acute and convalescent stages of infection
B. IgM in primary infection
C. IgG antigen on microtiter plates
D. A and B

D. A and B

Interferons are an important part of host defense against viral infections. What is interferon’s principal mode of action?
A. It is present in the serum of healthy individuals, providing a viral surveillance role
B. It coats viral particles and blocks their attachment to cells
C. It protects the virus infected cell that produced it from cell death
D. It induces synthesis of one or more cellular proteins that inhibit translation or transcription

D. It induces synthesis of one or more cellular proteins that inhibit translation or transcription

It is a form of viral infection in which replicating virus can be continuously detected often at low levels with mild or no evident clinical symptoms.
A. Chronic infection
B. Acute infection
C. Subclinical infection
D. Latent infection

A. Chronic infection

Which of the following is a live-attenuated virus vaccine?
A. Hepatitis B
B. Hib vaccine
C. Measles
D. Polio

C. Measles

Which among the following drugs is NOT a Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors analog?
A. Zidovudine
B. Delaviridine
C. Lamivudine
D. Didanosine

B. Delaviridine

What organism causes the most common sporadic form of viral encephalitis?
A. Smallpox
B. Herpes simplex virus
C. Rabies virus
D. Varicella-zoster

B. Herpes simplex virus

Innate response to viral infection includes the following EXCEPT?
A. Interferon
B. Natural killer cells
C. Phagocytic cells
D. T lymphocytes

D. T lymphocytes

Where do most DNA viruses assemble and bud?
A. Nucleus
B. Golgi apparatus
C. Mitochondria
D. Cytoplasm

A. Nucleus

The most common site of viral entry is:
A. GI tract
B. Respiratory tract
C. Skin
D. GI tract

B. Respiratory tract

A 10-month-old infant was brought to emergency room because of low grade fever and cough. On physical examination, patient was in respiratory distress and noted to have wheezing all over lung fields. Initial impression was bronchiolitis. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this infection?
A. Rhinovirus
B. Corona virus
C. Adenovirus
D. Respiratory Syncytial Virus

D. Respiratory Syncytial Virus

In hemagglutination inhibition test or HI test, if antibody is present in a patient’s serum, it will bind to viral particles and stimulate hemagglutination:
True
False

False

This is a highly contagious and deadly disease that can present with acute fever, chills, and myalgia followed by a characteristic rash with small blister-like lesions. Those that did not die from the illness were left with disfiguring scars. The inciting agent has a double-stranded linear DNA genome that replicates in the cytoplasm. Which of the following agents is the most likely causative agent?
A. Variola virus
B. Herpes simplex virus
C. Varicella virus
D. Rubeola virus

A. Variola virus

Which of the following statements regarding the serologic diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis is correct?
A. A heterophile antigen occurs following infection with both EBV and CMV
B. A heterophile antibody is formed that agglutinates sheep or horse red blood cells
C. A heterophile antigen occurs that cross-reacts with atypical lymphocytes
D. A heterophile antibody is formed that reacts with the membrane protein of EBV

B. A heterophile antibody is formed that agglutinates sheep or horse red blood cells

The hepadnaviruses such as hepatitis B virus are quite different from other DNA viruses with respect to genome replication. They replicate their DNA using:
A. DNA-dependent DNA polymerase
B. DNA ligase
C. Reverse transcriptase
D. RNA-dependent DNA polymerase

C. Reverse transcriptase

Which of the following is a fundamental principle of viral disease causation?
A. The type of disease produced by a virus can be predicted by the morphology of that virus
B. Many viral infections are subclinical and do not produce clinical disease
C. One virus type induces a single disease syndrome
D. A particular disease syndrome has a single viral cause

B. Many viral infections are subclinical and do not produce clinical disease

All of the following statements are true regarding viral disease EXCEPT?
A. Exposure to a virus usually leads to a viral disease
B. Same disease may be produced by a variety of viruses
C. Same virus may produce a variety of diseases
D. Outcome of viral disease is determined by the interaction of the virus and the host

A. Exposure to a virus usually leads to a viral disease

In the tertiary stage of LGV, the following can be seen EXCEPT:
A. Death from bowel obstruction
B. Elephantiasis of genitalia
C. Occurs weeks after initial infection
D. Rectal stricture

C. Occurs weeks after initial infection

What is the most common life-threatening complication of measles?
a. SSPE
b. pneumonia
c. otitis media
d. encephalitis

b. pneumonia

Match the following diseases to its causative virus
Pleurodynia — Coxsackievirus B
Acute viral gastroenteritis in infancy — Rotavirus
Hand, foot and mouth disease — Coxsackievirus A
Herpangia — Coxsackievirus A
Common colds — Rhinoviruses

Correct matching as listed

What is the most important cause of gastroenteritis in all age group?
a. Rotavirus
b. Norwalk virus
c. Enteroviruses
d. Reovirus

b. Norwalk virus

Which of the following is a single-stranded, nonenveloped virus?
a. rotavirus
b. measles
c. poliovirus
d. influenza

c. poliovirus

Isolation of the polio virus can be cultured in the following specimens EXCEPT
a. feces
b. blood
c. rectal swab
d. throat swab

b. blood

A 7 year old male was brought to emergency room because of stiffness and pain in the back and neck. A few days prior patient was noted with fever, body malaise, headache, nausea, vomiting and drowsiness. Poliomyelitis was considered. At what stage of poliomyelitis does this patient belong?
a. Aseptic meningitis
b. Progressive poliomyelitis
c. Mild disease
d. Paralytic poliomyelitis

a. Aseptic meningitis

All of the following diseases have effective vaccine as preventive measures EXCEPT?
a. RSV
b. poliomyelitis
c. mumps
d. measles

a. RSV