[MANOR] - Microbiology - Practice Questions

A) Outbreak

1. The sudden unexpected occurrence of a disease in a given population:
   A) Outbreak
   B) Zoonotic
   C) Endemic
   D) Sporadic

D) Helicobacter pylori

2. A causative agent of peptic ulcer:
   A) Escherichia coli
   B) Bordetella pertussi
   C) Shigella dysenteriae
   D) Helicobacter pylori

A) Dengue fever

3. The "four o'clock habit" promoted by the Department of Health is designed to prevent the spread of:
   A) Dengue fever
   B) Tuberculosis
   C) Malnutrition
   D) Malaria

A) ZDU

4. The first drug available for HIV:
   A) ZDU
   B) RMP
   C) TMP
   D) CMC

B) Anaphylaxis

5. An immediate hypersensitivity reaction following exposure of a sensitized individual to the appropriate antigen:
   A) Hay fever
   B) Anaphylaxis
   C) Asthma
   D) Desensitization

D) Pilus

6. A thin proteinaceous appendage necessary for bacterial conjugation:
   A) Cilium
   B) Trichome
   C) Flagellum
   D) Pilus

B) It can react with amines to form carcinogenic nitrosamines

7. The use of nitrite as preservative for food is discouraged because:
   A) It can discolor the meat
   B) It can react with amines to form carcinogenic nitrosamines
   C) It decomposed to nitric acid which can react with heme pigments
   D) It is not readily available

B) Chlorine

8. The disinfectant of choice for municipal water supplies:
   A) Lysol
   B) Chlorine
   C) Ozone
   D) Reverse osmosis

B) Fomite

9. An object that is able to harbor and transmit microorganisms:
   A) Mite
   B) Fomite
   C) Arthropod
   D) Vector

C) Artificially acquired active immunity

10. Administration of a toxoid confers:
    A) Naturally acquired active immunity
    B) Naturally acquired passive immunity
    C) Artificially acquired active immunity
    D) Artificially acquired passive immunity

A) Morbidity rate

11. An index that measures the number of individuals who have become ill because of a specific disease within a susceptible population during a specific period:
    A) Morbidity rate
    B) Prevalence rate
    C) Mortality rate
    D) All of the above

D) All of the above

12. The effectiveness of a disinfectant is influenced by:
    A) Population size
    B) Duration of exposure
    C) Concentration of the disinfectant
    D) All of the above

A) Koplik spot

13. Lesions in the oral cavity caused by measles virus are known as:
    A) Koplik spot
    B) Peyer's pathches
    C) Rose spots
    D) Rashes

C) Methanogenic

14. Anaerobic bacteria that derive energy by converting formates, acetates and other compounds to methane:
    A) Microaerophilic
    B) Metanochromic
    C) Methanogenic
    D) Cyanobactreria

B) Immunoglobulin preparations

15. Artificially acquired passive immunity is developed after vaccination with:
    A) Attenuated microorganism
    B) Immunoglobulin preparations
    C) Toxoids
    D) Cyanobacteria

A) Infections developed while the patient is in the hospital

16. Nosocomial infections are:
    A) Infections developed while the patient is in the hospital
    B) Infections of the nasal area
    C) Infections where pathogens enters the body through the nose
    D) Infections among animals

C) Toxigenicity

17. The capacity of an organism to produce a toxin is known as:
    A) Pathogenicity
    B) Virulence
    C) Toxigenicity
    D) Toxicity

B) Fecal coliforms

18. The Boracay water was declared unsafe due to:
    A) Industrial wastes
    B) Fecal coliforms
    C) Red tide
    D) Oil spills

D) Curved

19. The male ascaris is distinguished from the female because its tail is:
    A) Straight
    B) Slim
    C) Blunt
    D) Curved

A) Potable

20. It refers to water suitable for drinking:
    A) Potable
    B) Edible
    C) Bacteria-free
    D) Odor-free

B) Putrefaction

21. Microbial decomposition of proteins with the production of H2S and amines is known as:
    A) Fermentation
    B) Putrefaction
    C) Dentrification
    D) Transpeptidation

D) Vibrios

22. Rod-shaped bacteria curved to form commas are known as:
    A) Bacilli
    B) Cocci
    C) Spiral
    D) Vibrios

A) Viral infections are self-limiting

23. This statement is true about viral infection:
    A) Viral infections are self-limiting
    B) Viral infections confer lifetime immunity
    C) Viral infections are treated by antibiotics
    D) All statements are correct

D) Endotoxin

24. The heat-stable lipopolysaccharide in the outer membrane of gram-negative cell wall that is toxic to the host is known as:
    A) Tetanospasmin
    B) Aflatoxin
    C) Enterotoxin
    D) Endotoxin

A) Invasiveness

25. The ability of a microorganism to enter a host, grow, reproduce and spread throughout its body is known as:
    A) Invasiveness
    B) Pathogenicity
    C) Toxigenicity
    D) Virulence

D) All of the above

26. The intimate living together of members of two different species is known as:
    A) Mutualism
    B) Commensalism
    C) Symbiosis
    D) All of the above

B) Biodegradable

27. Plastics that can be decomposed by microorganism are said to be:
    A) Recyclable
    B) Biodegradable
    C) Earth-friendly
    D) Reversible

B) Aedes aegypti

28. Dengue virus vector:
    A) Plasmodium falciparum
    B) Aedes aegypti
    C) Anopheles mosquito
    D) None of the above

D) Malasseria furfur

29. It causes ringworm infection with whitish patches on human skin:
    A) Tinea capitis
    B) Tines corporis
    C) Trichophyton rubrum
    D) Malasseria furfur

D) Legionella pneumophila

30. The causative agent of pneumonia acquired by inhalation from air-conditioners:
    A) Chlamydia pneumoniae
    B) Salmonella typhi
    C) Pneumocystis carinii
    D) Legionella pneumophila

D) Tetanus

31. The following are communicable diseases, except:
    A) Measles
    B) Pneumonia
    C) Hepatitis
    D) Tetanus

A) Mumps

32. The following are zoonotic diseases, except:
    A) Mumps
    B) Leptospirosis
    C) Anthrax
    D) Brucellosis

A) Mycobacterium leprae

33. Hansen's disease is caused by:
    A) Mycobacterium leprae
    B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
    C) Myoplasma leprae
    D) None of the above

B) Causes oxidation of cell components

34. The following are true about moist heat sterilization, except:
    A) Makes use of an autoclave
    B) Causes oxidation of cell components
    C) Makes use of steam under pressure
    D) Can kill both vegetative cells and spores

D) Capsule

35. A cellular structure equated for drug resistance is the:
    A) Endospore
    B) Exospore
    C) Transposon
    D) Capsule

D) Both B and C

36. Bacterial genes responsible for drug resistance are known as:
    A) F plasmids
    B) R plasmids
    C) Transposons
    D) Both B and C

B) Rickettias

37. Group of microorganisms that can be transmitted to humans by animal vectors like insects:
    A) Protozoa
    B) Rickettias
    C) Chlamydias
    D) Myoplasmas

C) Salvarsan

38. The first chemotherapeutic agent scientifically discovered and evaluated:
    A) Sulfonamide
    B) Penicillin
    C) Salvarsan
    D) None of the above

C) Anaerobic media

39. Thioglycollate agar is an example of:
    A) Enriched media
    B) Selective media
    C) Anaerobic media
    D) Differential media

B) Disinfectant

40. A chemical agent that kills the vegetative forms of pathogenic microorganisms but not necessarily the spores is known as:
    A) Antiseptic
    B) Disinfectant
    C) Sanitizer
    D) Germicide

A) X-ray

41. An example of ionizing radiation:
    A) X-ray
    B) UV
    C) Sunlight
    D) All of the above

D) Mitochondria

42. The primary site of electron transport system in eukaryotes:
    A) Ribosomes
    B) Nucleus
    C) Cytoplasm
    D) Mitochondria

A) Mycoplasmas

43. The organism with atypical cell walls:
    A) Mycoplasmas
    B) Rickettias
    C) Chlamydias
    D) Viruses

A) The suspected organism should be present in health individuals

44. Koch's postulates include the following, except:
    A) The suspected organism should be present in health individuals
    B) The organism must be isolated and grown as pure culture in the laboratory
    C) The organism must initiate the symptoms of the disease in healthy animals
    D) The organism must be re-isolated from the animal and be cultured again in the laboratory

B) Fractional sterilization

45. The following are contributions of Louis Pasteur in microbiology, except:
    A) Terms "aerobic" and "anaerobic"
    B) Fractional sterilization
    C) Pasteur flask
    D) Fermentation

C) Pleomorphism

46. A phenomenon wherein an organism exhibits plasticity:
    A) Dimorphism
    B) Polymorphism
    C) Pleomorphism
    D) Fleximorphism

A) Olive oil

47. The following can be sterilized in an autoclave, except:
    A) Olive oil
    B) Culture media
    C) Water
    D) Glassware

C) Bacillus stearothermophilus

48. A biological sterilization indicator used to test autoclave efficiency:
    A) Virus
    B) Bacillus thuringiensis
    C) Bacillus stearothermophilus
    D) Clostridium botulinum

C) Stationary phase

49. Phase in the bacterial growth curve wherein the culture is in the period of balanced growth:
    A) Log phase
    B) Lag phase
    C) Stationary phase
    D) Death phase

C) Germination

50. A process by which bacterial endospore returns to its vegetative state:
    A) Polymorphism
    B) Mutagenicity
    C) Germination
    D) Sporulation

B) 80s

51. Ribosomes of Candida albicans are referred to as:
    A) 70s
    B) 80s
    C) 90s
    D) 100s

D) Mesophiles

52. Organisms that can grow at body temperature:
    A) Thermophiles
    B) Psychrophiles
    C) Acidophiles
    D) Mesophiles

B) Transverse binary fission

53. Specific process of reproduction among prokaryotes:
    A) Sporulation
    B) Transverse binary fission
    C) Germination
    D) None of the above

A) Transduction

54. A process of gene transfer where the carrier of DNA is a virus:
    A) Transduction
    B) Conjugation
    C) Transformation
    D) Both A and C

A) Virion

55. A structurally mature infections viral particle:
    A) Virion
    B) Capsid
    C) Capsule
    D) Spore

A) Dinoflagellate

56. An algae group responsible for red tide poisoning:
    A) Dinoflagellate
    B) Diatom
    C) Euglenoid
    D) None of the above

A) Theory of Spontaneous Generation

57. A theory that states that life originates from non-life:
    A) Theory of Spontaneous Generation
    B) Koch's Postulates
    C) Germ Theory
    D) None of the above

A) T-helper lymphocytes

58. Lymphocytes that have a high affinity for HIV:
    A) T-helper lymphocytes
    B) B-lymphocytes
    C) Phagocytes
    D) T-cytotoxic lymphocytes

C) Sentrong Sigla

59. A priority program of DOH, which aims at promoting availability of quality services in health centers and hospitals:
    A) Health Sector Reform Agenda
    B) National Health Objectives
    C) Sentrong Sigla
    D) Health Passport Initiative
    E) None of the above

B) National Health Objectives

60. Another priority program of DOH, which emphasizes partnership and shared responsibility for health among various sectors:
    A) Health Sector Reform Agenda
    B) National Health Objectives
    C) Sentrong Sigla
    D) Health Passport Initiative
    E) None of the above

A) DOH

61. Its function is mainly to serve as an advisory body to the local executive or local legislative on health related matters:
    A) DOH
    B) WHO
    C) QUERT
    D) Sentrong Sigla
    E) None of the above

D) WHO

62. Backyard gardening, community project and putting of herbal plants are among the major activities under this program:
    A) Araw ng Sangkap Pinoy
    B) Nutrition Program
    C) National Drug Policy Program
    D) WHO
    E) None of the above

D) WHO

63. Its main objective is attainment by all people of the highest possible level of health:
    A) Philhealth
    B) DOH Hospitals
    C) UNICEF
    D) WHO
    E) None of the above

D) Health Regulation Development

64. National Center for Disease Prevention and Control belongs to what function cluster:
    A) Internal Management
    B) Health Regulation
    C) External Affairs
    D) Health Regulation Development
    E) None of the above

B) Workers Compensation Law

65. An employee liability law that provides financial supports for workers unemployed because of work related injuries:
    A) OSH Act
    B) Workers Compensation Law
    C) Civilian Rehabilitation
    D) Coal Mine Health and Safety Act
    E) None of the above

E) None of the above

66. A lung disease caused by cotton-mill dust:
    A) Mesothelioma
    B) Chemical hazards
    C) Physical hazards
    D) Ergonomic hazards
    E) None of the above

C) Physical

67. A type of industrial hazard, which includes ambient heat, burn, noise and vibration:
    A) Biological
    B) Chemical
    C) Physical
    D) Ergonomic
    E) None of the above

B) CO

68. Air contaminants causing death by asphyxiation in high concentration:
    A) Sulfur dioxide
    B) CO
    C) CO2
    D) Lead
    E) None of the above

E) None of the above

69. The following are functions of Amiotic fluid, except:
    A) Allows the movement of fetus
    B) Protects against mechanical injury
    C) Provides stable temperature
    D) Allows the fetus to float
    E) None of the above

A) Canning

70. Food processing technique that protects food from oxidative deterioration and growth of aerobic microorganism:
    A) Canning
    B) Pasteurization
    C) Irradiation
    D) Drying
    E) None of the above

C) Vit. E

71. A vitamin that serves as intracellular antioxidants:
    A) Vit. A
    B) Vit. D
    C) Vit. E
    D) Vit. K
    E) None of the above

C) Fatty liver

72. The irreversible stage of alcohol damage characterized by liver enlargement:
    A) Cirrhosis
    B) Alcoholic hepatitis
    C) Fatty liver
    D) All
    E) None

E) None

73. The following are attributed to fetal alcohol syndrome, except:
    A) Smaller size
    B) Deformities of limb
    C) Heart defects
    D) Poor coordination
    E) None

B) Middle stage

74. Stage of alcoholism wherein the person experiences blackouts:
    A) Initial stage
    B) Middle stage
    C) Third stage
    D) final stage
    E) None

E) B and C

75. Compounds that combine with atmospheric moisture to produce highly acidic rain, snow, hair or fog:
    A) Carbon dioxide
    B) Sulfur dioxide
    C) Nitrogen oxide
    D) A and B
    E) B and C

D) Eutrophication

76. It is an aging process in the life cycle of lake, pond or slow moving river and stream brought about by the accumulation of nutrients needed to sustain aquatic plants and animals accompanied by an increase in the number of organisms:
    A) Acidification
    B) Alkalinification
    C) Nitrification
    D) Eutrophication
    E) None

B) Antabuse

77. A drug for treatment of alcoholism, which acts to diminish the pleasurable effects of alcohol:
    A) Naltrexone
    B) Antabuse
    C) Tranquilizers
    D) All
    E) None

A) Pregnancy

78. This is a period between conceptions through complete delivery of the product of conception:
    A) Pregnancy
    B) Fertilization
    C) Implantation
    D) Cleavage
    E) None

A) Copper

79. A trace mineral necessary for heme synthesis, electron transport and wound healing:
    A) Copper
    B) Manganese
    C) Chromium
    D) Zinc
    E) None

A) RDA

80. It describes the amounts of energy, protein, minerals and vitamins needed by normal healthy individual:
    A) RDA
    B) REA
    C) RAD
    D) RAE
    E) None

B) Secondary malnutrition

81. A type of malnutrition associated with inadequate mastication, digestion, absorption, transport and excretion of nutrients:
    A) Primary malnutrition
    B) Secondary malnutrition
    C) Undernutrition
    D) Overnutrition
    E) None

A) Beri-beri

82. Deficiency of thiamine leads to:
    A) Beri-beri
    B) Pellagra
    C) Stomatitis
    D) A and B
    E) B and C

C) Hang-over

83. A short-term expression of alcohol toxicity:
    A) Cirrhosis
    B) Alcoholism
    C) Hang-over
    D) A and B
    E) B and C

C) Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome

84. Vitamin B deficiency caused by alcoholism produces a neurological disorder called:
    A) Steven Johnson's Syndrome
    B) Down Syndrome
    C) Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome
    D) A and B
    E) None

B) Epstein-Barr virus is a non-enveloped virus with RNA as its genome.

85. Regarding the nature of medicinally important viruses, which one of the following statements is least accurate?
    A) Poliovirus is a non-enveloped virus with RNA as its genome.
    B) Epstein-Barr virus is a non-enveloped virus with RNA as its genome.
    C) Hepatitis B is an enveloped virus with RNA as its genome.
    D) Influenza virus is an enveloped virus with RNA as its genome.

D) Most gram-positive bacteria have capsules, whereas gram-negative bacteria rarely do.

86. The following statements regarding the capsules of bacteria are correct, except:
    A) Most bacterial capsules are polysaccharides and serve to protect the bacteria by inhibiting phagocytosis.
    B) Bacterial capsules can vary antigenically, and as a result some bacteria have many serologic types.
    C) Bacterial capsules can be purified and used in vaccines against certain bacteria, example the Pneumococcus.
    D) Most gram-positive bacteria have capsules, whereas gram-negative bacteria rarely do.

C) When cultured in the laboratory, the organism forms budding yeasts.

87. The following statements regarding Coccidiodes immitis are correct, except:
    A) It is a dimorphic fungus that grows as a mold in the soil and as spherules in the body.
    B) Infection usually results from the inhalation of asexual spores (anthroconida), hence the primary site of infection is the lungs.
    C) When cultured in the laboratory, the organism forms budding yeasts.
    D) The most important host defense against this organism is cell-mediated immunity.

A) They are integral parts of the cell wall.

88. The following statements regarding bacterial exotoxins are correct, except:
    A) They are integral parts of the cell wall.
    B) They are produced by both Staphylococcus aureus and Escherichia coli.
    C) They are polypeptides consisting of two functional regions, the one that binds to cell receptors and one that has the toxic activity.
    D) Treatment of some exotoxins with formaldehyde yields a toxoid, which is used as the immunogen in certain vaccines.

D) Its C3b fragment is part of the complex that causes lysis of gram-negative bacteria such as Neiserria.

89. The following statements regarding the C3 component of the complement cascade are correct, except:
    A) It is involved in both the classic and the alternative pathways.
    B) Its C3a fragment can cause anaphylaxis by releasing histamines from mast cells.
    C) Its C3b fragment binds to both IgG and surface receptors on neutrophils.
    D) Its C3b fragment is part of the complex that causes lysis of gram-negative bacteria such as Neiserria.

C) Both the pertussis vaccine and Haemophilus influenza vaccine contain inactivated whole bacteria and produce significant side effects in children.

90. Regarding the prevention of bacterial diseases by vaccines, which one of the following is least accurate?
    A) Tetanus toxoid is produced by treating tetanus toxin with formalin, which inactivates its ability to cause disease but leaves its antigenicity intact.
    B) Diphtheria vaccine contains diphtheria toxoid and produces few side effects when given to children.
    C) Both the pertussis vaccine and Haemophilus influenza vaccine contain inactivated whole bacteria and produce significant side effects in children.
    D) The pneumococcal vaccine contains the capsular polysaccharide of many serotypes and is recommended primarily for older people.

D) Mumps virus

91. Several viruses infect the intestinal tract as their initial site of infection. Which one of the following is least likely to do this?
    A) Hepatitis A virus
    B) Poliovirus
    C) Rotavirus
    D) Mumps virus

C) Penicillin binds to carrier proteins, then interacts with the B cell receptor and carrier proteins. The carrier protein epitope is presented to the helper-T cell.

92. Penicillin is a very effective antibacterial drug but their use is limited by allergic reactions. In these allergies, Penicillin acts as a hapten. Which of the following is the most accurate?
    A) Penicillin is a T-dependent antigens, which bind to receptors on B cells and stimulate an antibody response.
    B) Penicillin interacts with T cell receptors on CD4-positive T cells and activates them.
    C) Penicillin binds to carrier proteins, then interacts with the B cell receptor and carrier proteins. The carrier protein epitope is presented to the helper-T cell.
    D) Penicillin interacts with the early complements (C1, C4, C2 and C3) to release inflammatory mediators.

B) Streptococcus pyogenes

93. The causative agent of suppurative diseases like pharyngitis and cellulites and nonsuppurative diseases like rheumatic fever and acute glomerulonephritis.
    A) Staphylococcus aureus
    B) Streptococcus pyogenes
    C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
    D) Staphylococcus epidermidis
    E) Streptococcus agalactiae

A) Staphylococcus aureus

94. The causative agent of food poisoning, TSS and skin boils.
    A) Staphylococcus aureus
    B) Streptococcus pyogenes
    C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
    D) Staphylococcus epidermidis
    E) Streptococcus agalactiae

D) Staphylococcus epidermidis

95. Normal flora of the skin but may cause "stitch abscess" and sepsis.
    A) Staphylococcus aureus
    B) Streptococcus pyogenes
    C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
    D) Staphylococcus epidermidis
    E) Streptococcus agalactiae

E) Streptococcus agalactiae

96. A group B Streptococcus that causes neonatal meningitis and sepsis.
    A) Staphylococcus aureus
    B) Streptococcus pyogenes
    C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
    D) Staphylococcus epidermidis
    E) Streptococcus agalactiae

C) Streptococcus pneumoniae

97. The causative agent of pneumonia and meningitis in adults, and otitis media and sinusitis in children.
    A) Staphylococcus aureus
    B) Streptococcus pyogenes
    C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
    D) Staphylococcus epidermidis
    E) Streptococcus agalactiae

B) Gonococcus

98. A gram negative, kidney bean shaped diplococci causing gonorrhea.
    A) Meningococcus
    B) Gonococcus
    C) Bacillus antracis
    D) Clostridium tetani
    E) Listeria monocytogenes

A) Meningococcus

99. A gram negative, kidney bean shaped diplococci, oxidase positive with large polysaccharide capsule referred to as glycocalyx.
    A) Meningococcus
    B) Gonococcus
    C) Bacillus antracis
    D) Clostridium tetani
    E) Listeria monocytogenes

D) Clostridium tetani

100. Anaerobic, gram positive with terminal spore affecting neurotransmitters leading to excitatory neurons that are unopposed and extreme muscle spasm.
     A) Meningococcus
     B) Gonococcus
     C) Bacillus antracis
     D) Clostridium tetani
     E) Listeria monocytogenes