Proteins and Amino Acids

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Last updated 10:04 PM on 5/22/26
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125 Terms

1
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what aminoacidopathy refers to a mutation in the PAH gene?

PKU

2
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what enzyme does the PAH gene encode?

phenylalanine hydroxylase

3
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newborn testing of which aminoacidopathy is required in the U.S.?

PKU

4
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for PKU, metabolites such as phenylpyruvic acid, phenylpyruvate, and phenyllactic acid can cause significant and permanent ____ damage.

brain

5
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for PKU, increased phenylalanine and metabolites in urine can cause a musty or ____ odor.

mousy

6
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PKU testing is done on all newborns at day _____ after birth.

3

7
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the guthrie test for PKU utilizes a plate that contains _____, an antagonist to the growth of spores of bacillus subtilis.

beta2-thienylalanine

8
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in the guthrie test for PKU, increased phenylalanine will inhibit action of _____ so the spores of bacillus subtilis will grow.

beta2-thienylalanine

9
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PKU testing via the guthrie test can detect up to ____mg/dL

3

10
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what form of PKU testing refers to a ferric chloride reaction that is positive in UA with a blue-grey to green reaction (may be not detect early in disease)?

phenistix

11
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what aminoacidopathy refers to excess tyrosine in blood that causes an overflow of tyrosine in urine (cabbage-like odor)?

tyrosinemia

12
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which type of tyrosinemia refers to a mutation in the FAH gene?

1

13
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which type of tyrosinemia refers to a mutation in the TAT gene?

2

14
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which type of tyrosinemia refers to a mutation in the HPD gene?

3

15
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which type of tyrosinemia is best described:

  • most severe

  • severe liver disease

  • cirrhosis

  • liver cancer risk later in life

1

16
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which type of tyrosinemia is best described:

  • impaired mental development

  • painful skin lesions

  • photophobia

2

17
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which type of tyrosinemia is best described:

  • impaired mental development

  • seizures

  • loss of balance

3

18
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in tyrosinemia, there will be an increase in tyrosine and _____ in the blood.

succinylacetone

19
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the nitrosonaphthol test for tyrosinemia will result in a positive ____ color.

red

20
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____ crystals appear as fine silky needles arranged in sheaves or bundles in acid urine.

tyrosine

21
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tyrosine crystals are commonly present in tyrosinemia. true or false?

false

22
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in liver disease, tyrosine crystals may appear together with _____ crystals.

leucine

23
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tyrosine crystals should NOT be confused with crystals caused by ____.

x-ray dye

24
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_____ will cause urine specific gravity to be greatly increased (1.040 → biologically impossible).

x-ray dye

25
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____ crystals are soluble in alkali or dilute mineral acid.

tyrosine

26
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what aminoacidopathy refers to a mutation in the HGD gene?

alkaptonuria

27
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the HGD gene encodes the enzyme _____ to metabolize homogentisic acid in the phe/tyr pathway.

homogentisate oxidase

28
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patients with ____ develop dark blue brown to black pigmentation in cartilage and connective tissue and arthritis.

alkaptonuria

29
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urine darkens (may turn black) upon standing at room temperature or at alkaline pH in which aminoacidopathy?

alkaptonuria

30
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what aminoacidopathy refers to the absence or extremely low activity of a complex of enzymes known as branched-chain alpha-ketoacid dehydrogenase (BCKD)?

MSUD

31
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in MSUD, the normal metabolism of the three essential branched-chain amino acids by BCKD is stopped. what are the 3 amino acids?

leucine, isoleucine, valine

32
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the most striking feature of ____ is the “burnt sugar” smell of urine, sweat, and breath.

MSUD

33
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what aminoacidopathy is marked by severe neonatal vomiting, acidosis, seizures, stupor, failure to thrive, mental retardation and if undiagnosed can lead to death?

MSUD

34
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for MSUD, the modified guthrie test includes agar that contains the inhibitor _____ which blocks growth of bacillus subtilis.

4-azaleucine

35
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in MSUD, in the presence of _____ (leached from newborn’s blood disk), bacteria will grow for the modified guthrie test.

branched chain amino acids

36
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for the microfluorometric assay for MSUD testing, leucine levels of greater than ____ g/dL are indicative of MSUD.

4

37
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a prenatal diagnosis of MSUD can be made through decarboxylase enzyme concentration in cells cultured from _____.

amniotic fluid

38
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the most common form of homocystinuria is caused by a mutation in the ____ gene.

CBS

39
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the CBS gene encodes the enzyme _____ which is necessary for methionine metabolism.

cystathionine beta-synthase

40
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enzyme deficiency in homocystinuria leads to elevated levels of homocysteine and ____.

methionine

41
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newbornes with homocystinuria show no clinical effect but in late childhood develop _____, mental retardation, and ocular damage.

vascular thrombosis

42
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the modified guthrie test can be used for homocystinuria where the inhibitor is _____.

L-methionine sulfoximine

43
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a methionine concentration of greater than ____ mg/dL indicates homocystinuria.

2

44
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cystinuria or cystinosis: defective reabsorption of cystine and dibasic amino acids?

cystinuria

45
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cystinuria or cystinosis: renal stones develop in long history cases?

cystinuria

46
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cystinuria or cystinosis: cystine crystals in urine are diagnostic?

cystinuria

47
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cystinuria or cystinosis: true inborn error of metabolism?

cystinosis

48
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cystinuria or cystinosis: increased cystine in cornea, bone marrow, lymph nodes, and internal organs?

cystinosis

49
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cystinuria or cystinosis: fanconi’s syndrome develops with renal failure?

cystinosis

50
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blood should be collected at least after _____ hours of fasting to avoid the effects of absorbed amino acids from diet.

6-8

51
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for amino acid analysis, _____ plasma separated from cells immediately to avoid the smallest contamination of cells.

heparinized

52
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hemolysis must be avoided for amino acid analysis samples. true or false?

true

53
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deproteinization should be performed within ____ minutes of sample collection for amino acid analysis.

30

54
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if analysis of amino acids cannot be performed immediately, the sample should be frozen at ____°C.

-20 to -40°C

55
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urine can be random collection for screening purposes of amino acid analysis. true or false?

true

56
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for quantitation of amino acids, a 24-hour urine specimen preserved with ____ or organic solvents is required.

thymol

57
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in electrophoresis, which fraction contains the following:

  • alpha anti-trysin

  • alpha acid glycoprotein

alpha1-antitrypsin

58
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in electrophoresis, which fraction contains the following:

  • alpha3 macroglobulin

  • haptoglobin

alpha2-macroglobulin

59
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in electrophoresis, which fraction contains the following:

  • hemopexin

  • transferrin

  • beta lipoproein

  • complement C3

beta

60
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in electrophoresis, which fraction contains the following:

  • IgM

  • IgG

  • IgA

gamma

61
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reference range of total protein.

6-8 g/dL

62
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albumin reference range.

3.5-5.0 g/dL

63
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globulin reference range.

1.8-4.5 g/dL

64
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what is the range for A/G ratio?

1.3:1 to 1.8:1

65
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how to calculate globulin?

total protein - albumin

66
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____ (hypo) proteins is associated with:

  • urinary loss

  • liver and GI disorders

  • malnutrition

  • immunodeficiencies

  • burns

decreased

67
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____ (hyper) proteins is associated with:

  • dehydration

  • inflammation

  • gammopathies

increased

68
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alpha 1 globulin reference interval.

0.15-0.31 g/dL

69
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alpha 2 globulin reference interval.

0.46-0.90 g/dL

70
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beta globulin reference interval.

0.62-1.14 g/dL

71
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gamma globulin reference interval.

0.60-1.70 g/dL

72
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prealbumin will be a thick/strong band on SPE. true or false?

false

73
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____ is associated with the following:

  • precedes albumin (anodal)

  • binds thyroxine (TBP)

  • transthyretin

  • retinol (vitamin A) binding protein

prealbumin

74
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prealbumin has a thick/strong band on CSF electrophoresis. true or false?

true

75
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_____ can assess nutrition status (half life of 2-3 days) and is increased in positive nitrogen balance seen with parenteral nutrition.

prealbumin

76
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what protein electrophoresis fraction is responsible for 80% of colloidal oncotic pressure intravascular?

albumin

77
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what protein electrophoresis fraction:

  • transport surface

  • serves as a source/reserve of amino acids

  • serves as a plasma buffer

  • provides antioxidant activity

  • alters capillary permeability

albumin

78
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albumin is _____ in renal and liver pathology.

decreased

79
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albumin is ____ in malnutrition, impaired absorption/digestion, and inflammation.

albumin

80
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albumin is ____ in dehydration.

increased

81
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____ can be falsely increased when a tourniquet is left on too long or the specimen is allowed to evaporate.

albumin

82
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what protein electrophoresis fraction is a serpin (serine protease inhibitor) that binds to and inactivates trypsin?

alpha1-antitrypsin

83
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deficiency in ____ is associated with the following:

  • pulmonary emphysema [Pi(null) allele or ZZ phenotype]

    • degradation of elastin in alveoli by neutrophil elastase

  • cirrhosis (neonatal)

  • hepatocellular carcinoma

alpha1-antitrypsin

84
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alpha1-antitrypsin is _____ with inflammation (acute phase response) and estrogen increase.

increased

85
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what protein electrophoresis fraction is the largest non-immunoglobulin in plasma?

alpha2-macroglobulin

86
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what protein electrophoresis fraction is a protease inhibitor: inhibition of enzymes in the kinase, complement, coagulation and fibrinolytic systems?

alpha2-macroglobulin

87
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alpha2-macroglobulin is _____ in nephrotic syndrome.

increased

88
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alpha2-macroglobulin is _____ in acute pancreatitis.

decreased

89
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which alpha2-macroglobulin protein refers to:

  • copper transport protein

  • levels fluctuate with variety of physiological states

    • measurement is used to screen for wilson’s disease

ceruloplasmin

90
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which alpha2-macroglobulin protein refers to:

  • binds to and preserves hemoglobin

  • involved in inflammatory response

haptoglobin

91
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hemolytic diseases can deplete haptoglobin. true or false?

true

92
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C3 and C4 can migrate in the ____ region of SPE.

beta

93
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complement is ____ in genetic deficiencies.

decreased

94
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complement is ____ in inflammation.

increased

95
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_____ is found on the surface of most nucleated cells, high in lymphocytes.

beta2-microglobulin

96
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____ is high in inflammatory disorders RA and SLE from impaired renal tubular clearance.

beta2-microglobulin

97
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which serum protein of the beta fraction is involved with iron transport and is increased in IDA?

transferrin

98
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____ is only present in SPE when plasma is used or an incomplete clot → beta/gamma interface

fibrinogen

99
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what is the most sensitive indicator of acute phase reactant (trauma, inflammation, infection, etc.)?

CRP

100
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a single sharp peak in the gamma region indicates a paraprotein associated with a monoclonal gammopathy (multiple myeloma) → _____.

M protein