AAVSB Practice Tests (all combined)

A vial of penicillin contains 2,000,000 units of the dry drug. To make the penicillin into a solution that contains 400,000 units per milliliter, how much diluent is needed?

A. 2 mL

B. 4 mL

C. 5 mL

D. 10 mL

C. 5 mL

2,000,000/400,000

When an anesthetized patient is to be placed on a circular or semiclosed anesthesia circuit, the correct reservoir bag size is determined by using which of the following?

A. 60 mL/lb/min

B. 60 mL/lb

C. 60 mL/kg

D. 60 mL/kg/min

C. 60 mL/kg

It is necessary to immunize ferrets against:

A. feline panleukopenia.

B. feline rhinotracheitis.

C. canine hepatitis.

D. canine distemper.

D. canine distemper.

Endotracheal intubation of the horse is usually performed:

A. blindly.

B. with the aid of a laryngoscope.

C. by palpation of the larynx.

D. with direct visualization of the larynx.

A. blindly

In an anesthetized patient, hypocarbia (hypocapnia) could be attributed to:

A. exhausted soda lime.

B. low respiratory rate.

C. excess artificial ventilation.

D. kinked endotracheal tube.

C. excess artificial ventilation.

Hypocarbia= a decrease of C02 in blood.

Which solution is contraindicated as a surgical prep if electrocautery is being used during the procedure?

A. Povidone iodine

B. Hexachlorophene

C. Isopropyl alcohol

D. Chlorhexidine

C. Isopropyl alcohol

Ivermectin is classified as which type of agent?

A. Fungicide

B. Anthelmintic

C. Antibiotic

D. Disinfectant

B. Anthelmintic

When discharging a patient that is wearing a fentanyl patch, instructions to the owners should include:

A. skin irritation from the patch is considered a normal reaction.

B. proper use and disposal of the patch.

C. duration of pain control is 24 hours.

D. gloves are not necessary when handling the patch.

B. proper use and disposal of the patch.

Acepromazine is classified as a/an:

A. neuroleptanalgesic.

B. anticholinergic.

C. dissociative.

D. tranquilizer.

D. tranquilizer.

The correct names of the four valves of the heart are:

A. pulmonic, systolic, atrial, and tricuspid.

B. mitral, pulmonic, aortic, and tricuspid.

C. aortic, diastolic, septal, and mitral.

D. mitral, pulmonic, atrial, and tricuspid.

B. mitral, pulmonic, aortic, and tricuspid.

If anaphylaxis occurs after the administration of any vaccine or drug, which drug will best reverse the effect of shock?

A. Antihistamines

B. Epinephrine

C. Doxapram

D. Dexamethasone

B. Epinephrine

In treating hypovolemic shock in the canine, the most important form of therapy is to:

A. administer IV fluids.

B. inject corticosteroids.

C. keep the patient warm.

D. give analgesics.

A. administer IV fluids

Which of the following is the smallest suture?

A. #1

B. 0

C. 3-0

D. 5-0

D. 5-0

When a patient shows clinical signs of dyspnea and cyanosis, the technician should check for:

A. ataxia.

B. hypothermia.

C. respiratory obstruction.

D. urethral obstruction.

C. respiratory obstruction.

For a 20-kg dog that is 5% dehydrated, how much fluid replacement is required?

A. 250 mL

B. 500 mL

C. 1000 mL

D. 2000 mL

C. 1000 mL

A vial containing 1 gram of medication has to be reconstituted to a 2.5% solution (w/v). What volume of diluent is needed and what concentration will result?

A. 25 mL, resulting in a concentration of 4 mg/L

B. 40 mL, resulting in a concentration of 2.5 mg/L

C. 40 mL, resulting in a concentration of 4 mg/mL

D. 40 mL, resulting in a concentration of 25 mg/mL

D. 40 mL, resulting in a concentration of 25 mg/mL

In the anesthetized, healthy patient, which of the following abnormalities is most commonly encountered?

A. Respiratory alkalosis

B. Metabolic acidosis

C. Metabolic alkalosis

D. Respiratory acidosis

D. Respiratory acidosis

Respiratory acidosis: when the lungs can't remove enough of the carbon dioxide.

The standard culture medium used for bacterial sensitivity testing is:

A. MacConkey.

B. Hektoen enteric.

C. Sabouraud dextrose.

D. Mueller-Hinton.

D. Mueller-Hinton.

The inhalant anesthetic isoflurane:

A. is a liquid at room temperature when stored in a sealed container.

B. is odorless.

C. is flammable.

D. does not vaporize at room temperature when stored in an open container.

A. is a liquid at room temperature when stored in a sealed container.

For horses under anesthesia in lateral recumbency, padding and positioning of the front legs and head is important to prevent:

A. decubital sores.

B. granuloma.

C. laminitis.

D. neuromuscular damage.

D. neuromuscular damage.

Adequate tissue perfusion is presumed when an animal exhibits normal:

A. heart rate.

B. body temperature.

C. capillary refill.

D. pupillary size.

C. capillary refill.

Which hormone is responsible for the rupture of an ovarian follicle and the release of a mature egg from an ovary?

A. Luteinizing hormone

B. Estrogen

C. Follicle stimulating hormone

D. Progesterone

A. Luteinizing hormone

The most profound adverse effect of the opioid drugs is:

A. respiratory depression.

B. decreased heart rate.

C. bowel hypermotility.

D. decreased blood pressure

A. respiratory depression.

How long is the gestation period in the mare?

A. 112 - 115 days

B. 148 - 156 days

C. 280 - 290 days

D. 326 - 354 days

D. 326 - 354 days

Inanimate objects contaminated with pathogens are referred to as:

A. carriers.

B. hosts.

C. fomites.

D. vectors.

C. fomites.

Which of the following parasites requires an intermediate host in order to complete the life cycle?

A. Ascarid

B. Hookworm

C. Coccidia

D. Heartworm

D. Heartworm

Basophilic stippling of RBCs is a characteristic finding in:

A. lead poisoning in dogs.

B. anemia in horses.

C. acetaminophen toxicity in cats.

D. healthy avian blood.

A. lead poisoning in dogs.

An effective drug for treating anaphylaxis is:

A. calcium gluconate.

B. piperazine.

C. procaine.

D. epinephrine.

D. epinephrine.

If a horse is given 825 mL of a 10% solution of guaifenesin, the amount in grams of guaifenesin given is:

A. 0.825 g

B. 8.25 g

C. 82.5 g

D. 825 g

C. 82.5 g

Which of the following does not increase radiographic density?

A. Increased kVp

B. Increased distance from target

C. Increased developing time

D. Increased developing temperature

B. Increased distance from target

Anemia due to the lack of iron and chronic blood loss are classified as:

A. microcytic, hypochromic.

B. macrocytic, polychromatic.

C. macrocytic, hypochromic.

D. microcytic, polychromatic.

A. microcytic, hypochromic.

Bordetella vaccine is given to dogs to prevent:

A. Lyme disease.

B. parainfluenza.

C. distemper.

D. tracheobronchitis.

D. tracheobronchitis.

Which type of suture material is more likely to "wick" fluid along it and therefore, should not be used in a contaminated environment?

A. Catgut

B. Monofilament

C. Stainless steel

D. Braided polyglactin 910

D. Braided polyglactin 910

A palpebral reflex is checked at the:

A. pupil.

B. foot.

C. eyelid.

D. throat.

C. eyelid.

Which of the following is the most likely complication of endotracheal tube cuff overinflation during lengthy anesthesia?

A. Air leakage from the cuff

B. Cuff rotation within the trachea

C. Tissue necrosis

D. Cuff wear and tear

C. Tissue necrosis

What is the advantage of using a narcotic as a premedication?

A. Increased analgesia

B. Increased blood pressure

C. Decreased salivation

D. Decreased respirations

A. Increased analgesia

In cattle, an increase in fibrinogen relative to the other plasma proteins is most likely to be due to:

A. estrus.

B. inflammation.

C. ketosis.

D. pregnancy.

B. inflammation.

When skeletal muscles are not being used, or when they lose their nerve supply, they tend to:

A. hypertrophy.

B. atrophy.

C. necrose.

D. dystrophy.

B. atrophy.

In radiographic terminology, to which of the following does the term density refer?

A. The difference in anatomical detail observable between two areas on the radiograph

B. The concentration of X rays produced

C. The thickness of the radiograph

D. The degree of blackness of the radiograph

D. The degree of blackness of the radiograph

Butorphanol tartrate has been prescribed for a Pomeranian with a collapsed trachea. The client should be cautioned that a common side effect of this drug is:

A. hyperventilation.

B. tachycardia.

C. polydipsia.

D. sedation.

D. sedation.

The primary function of the segmented neutrophil is:

A. to remove histamine from the tissues.

B. the phagocytosis of small particles.

C. the antigen/antibody response.

D. to transport oxygen to the tissues.

B. the phagocytosis of small particles.

The contrast media that are most used in veterinary radiography are iodine, barium sulfate, and:

A. water.

B. urine.

C. air.

D. feces.

C. air.

Cells that line the thoracic, pericardial, and abdominal cavities are known as:

A. mast cells.

B. macrophages.

C. Schwann cells.

D. mesothelial cells.

D. mesothelial cells.

Constant Rate Infusion (CRI) of an analgesic:

A. rarely requires a loading dose.

B. is administered in large amounts over a short period of time.

C. avoids peaks and valleys normally seen with a bolus injection.

D. provides excellent analgesia in dogs but not in cats.

C. avoids peaks and valleys normally seen with a bolus injection.

Which of the following instruments is used for removing subgingival plaque?

A. Curette

B. Elevator

C. Scaler

D. Calculus forceps

A. Curette

A correct statement about vaccines is that they contain:

A. antibodies.

B. T-lymphocytes.

C. B-lymphocytes.

D. antigens.

D. antigens.

Which of the following is the common name of the first upper premolar tooth in the horse?

A. Incisor

B. Canine

C. Wolf

D. Carnassial

C. Wolf

A rising antibody titer in paired serum samples taken 2 weeks apart indicates a:

A. latent infection.

B. lack of infection.

C. past infection.

D. recent infection.

D. recent infection.

Which surface of the tooth meets the opposite tooth during mastication?

A. Lingual

B. Buccal

C. Occlusal

D. Labial

C. Occlusal

How many grams of sodium chloride should be dissolved in 1.5 L of water to make a 12% solution?

A. 1.8 g

B. 18 g

C. 180 g

D. 1800 g

C. 180 g

Which of the following forceps do veterinary surgeons most often use to aid in suturing?

A. Kelly

B. Adson

C. Halsted

D. Babcock

B. Adson

Which of the following is an analgesic drug commonly administered via a transdermal patch?

A. Oxymorphone

B. Meloxicam

C. Xylazine

D. Fentanyl

D. Fentanyl

The term that is used to describe the removal of the dorsal, bony roof of the spinal canal is:

A. myectomy.

B. laminectomy.

C. neurectomy.

D. caudectomy.

B. laminectomy.

Onychectomy is correctly defined as the surgical removal of:

A. ovaries.

B. tonsils.

C. testicles.

D. claws.

D. claws.

A decrease in RBC size observed during a CBC should be noted as:

A. hypochromasia.

B. macrocytosis.

C. normocytosis.

D. microcytosis.

D. microcytosis.

Hypocalcemia is commonly seen in:

A. lactating animals.

B. the second trimester of pregnancy.

C. unweaned animals.

D. animals exhibiting lactose intolerance.

A. lactating animals.

The lingual surface of the tooth is closest to the:

A. cheek.

B. tongue.

C. palate.

D. lips.

B. tongue.

For a midline ovariohysterectomy, the patient is positioned in which type of recumbency?

A. Left lateral

B. Ventral

C. Dorsal

D. Right lateral

C. Dorsal

All of the following drug groups produce analgesia except:

A. barbiturates.

B. alpha-2 agonists.

C. phenothiazines.

D. opioids.

C. phenothiazines.

When the veterinarian orders radiographs to investigate a suspected fracture of the left olecranon in a canine patient, the technician should radiograph the left:

A. carpus.

B. elbow.

C. stifle.

D. tarsus.

B. elbow.

During surgery, an atraumatic method of hemostasis is:

A. clamping with hemostatic forceps.

B. wiping with gauze sponges.

C. blotting with gauze sponges.

D. ligation with suture material.

C. blotting with gauze sponges.

After parturition, a cow may become partially or totally paralyzed with which of the following types of paralysis?

A. Perineal

B. Obturator

C. Median

D. Femoral

B. Obturator

After Gram staining, any bacterium that looks reddish-pink under the microscope is:

A. alpha-hemolytic.

B. Gram-negative.

C. acid-fast.

D. Gram-positive.

B. Gram-negative.

The primary reason that vasoconstrictors are added to local anesthetics is to:

A. increase the duration of action.

B. increase the area affected by the anesthetic.

C. minimize toxicity.

D. decrease the duration of action.

A. increase the duration of action.

Which type of immunoassay typically results in the visible clumping of particles?

A. Fluorescent antibody testing

B. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)

C. Agglutination test

D. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

C. Agglutination test

Overinflation of an endotracheal tube cuff in the trachea of an anesthetized animal may result in:

A. immediate dyspnea.

B. emesis.

C. laryngospasm.

D. pressure necrosis.

D. pressure necrosis.

In an anesthetized animal, pale-gray mucous membranes are indicative of:

A. hypercapnia.

B. hyperventilation.

C. poor tissue perfusion.

D. arrhythmia.

C. poor tissue perfusion.

A radiograph that has been overexposed is:

A. very detailed.

B. too dark.

C. not developable.

D. too light.

B. too dark.

Lipase is a pancreatic enzyme that:

A. degrades carbohydrates.

B. activates insulin.

C. degrades fat.

D. activates proteins.

C. degrades fat.

The neutrophilic segmented cell belongs to the:

A. plasmacytic series.

B. monocytic series.

C. granulocytic series.

D. erythrocytic series.

C. granulocytic series.

Which of the following diseases is caused by protozoa?

A. Pasteurellosis

B. Trichomoniasis

C. Salmonellosis

D. Leptospirosis

B. Trichomoniasis

Metoclopramide belongs to which class of drugs?

A. Antiemetic

B. Anti-infective agent

C. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agent

D. Muscle relaxant

A. Antiemetic

Which of the following is a common side effect of glucocorticoid usage?

A. Polyuria

B. Inappetence

C. Vomiting

D. Pruritus

A. Polyuria

Cattle are commonly vaccinated against which of the following zoonotic diseases, which can be spread by the urine of deer and rats?

A. Leptospirosis

B. Borreliosis

C. Campylobacteriosis

D. Brucellosis

A. Leptospirosis

Given the following four patients in an emergency clinic staffed by one veterinarian and one veterinary technician:

A. A dog bleeding profusely from a paw laceration

B. A cat that has been inappetant for 3 days

C. A rabbit with dyspnea

D. A dog with a suspected hock dislocation

In which order should the technician recommend that the veterinarian see the patients?

A. C,A,D,B

B. C,D,A,B

C. A,D,B,C

D. A,C,B,D

A. C,A,D,B

Which of the following monitoring devices displays heart rate and rhythm?

A. Pulse oximeter

B. Electrocardiograph

C. Doppler

D. End-tidal CO2 monitor

B. Electrocardiograph

In the suspected presence of viral enteritis, which of the following would be the agent of choice to disinfect an area?

A. Benzalkonium chloride

B. Sodium hypochlorite

C. Alcohol

D. Ammonia

B. Sodium hypochlorite

Which of the following drugs is injected sublingually to stimulate breathing of neonates after delivery by cesarean section?

A. Meperidine

B. Droperidol

C. Diazepam

D. Doxapram

D. Doxapram

The osmotic pressure of body fluids is primarily maintained by which of the following ions?

A. Magnesium

B. Potassium

C. Chloride

D. Sodium

D. Sodium

Dystocia caused by uterine inertia is commonly treated with:

A. estrogen.

B. oxytocin.

C. progesterone.

D. prostaglandins.

B. oxytocin.

If a patient has a WBC count of 10,000/µL showing 30% monocytes and 70% lymphocytes, the patient's absolute monocyte count is:

A. 30 cells/µL

B. 300 cells/µL

C. 3,000 cells/µL

D. 30,000 cells/µL

C. 3,000 cells/µL

One characteristic of dissociative anesthesia is:

A. decreased muscle tone.

B. poor somatic analgesia.

C. poor visceral analgesia.

D. decreased salivation.

C. poor visceral analgesia.

Which of the following conversions is most accurate?

A. 1 fl oz = 30 mL

B. 1 inch = 5 cm

C. 60 lb = 100 kg

D. 1 tbsp = 4 mL

A. 1 fl oz = 30 mL

The part of the mature tooth that is continuously deposited throughout life by odontoblasts is the:

A. dentin.

B. enamel.

C. cementum.

D. pulp.

A. dentin.

Anesthetized patients should be periodically ventilated to control the development of:

A. hypoxia and hyperemia.

B. hypoglycemia and hypoplasia.

C. hypocapnia and dyspnea.

D. hypercapnia and atelectasis.

D. hypercapnia and atelectasis.

Which of the following will absorb the fewest X-rays?

A. Bone

B. Air

C. Water

D. Muscle

B. Air

Horses develop enamel points on which surfaces of the teeth?

A. Lingual edge of the upper and lower arcades

B. Buccal edge of the upper and lower arcades

C. Buccal edge of the upper arcade and lingual edge of the lower arcade

D. Buccal edge of the lower arcade and lingual edge of the upper arcade

C. Buccal edge of the upper arcade and lingual edge of the lower arcade

Pulse oximetry is a noninvasive method of measuring:

A. venous CO2 saturation.

B. arterial oxygen saturation.

C. arterial CO2 saturation.

D. venous oxygen saturation.

B. arterial oxygen saturation.

The appropriate surgical instrument for harvesting an autogenous bone graft is a/an:

A. bone cutter.

B. bone curette.

C. Tru-Cut biopsy needle.

D. osteotome.

B. bone curette.

The tip of the tooth root is called the:

A. apex.

B. neck.

C. crown.

D. cusp.

A. apex.

A metatarsal bone is located in the:

A. hind paw.

B. front paw.

C. spine.

D. pelvis.

A. hind paw.

Abdominal distention caused by fluid accumulation is commonly known as:

A. ascites.

B. bloat.

C. hepatomegaly.

D. colic.

A. ascites.

If a thoracic radiograph taken using 80 kVp and 10 mAs is excessively dark, which of the following settings should be used for a retake?

A. 60 kVp and 20 mAs

B. 70 kVp and 10 mAs

C. 80 kVp and 20 mAs

D. 85 kVp and 10 mAs

B. 70 kVp and 10 mAs

An administration set labeled "1 mL = approximately 60 drops" is being used for parenteral fluids for an animal requiring 500 mL/hr. What is the appropriate drip rate to meet this requirement?

A. 0.6 gtt/sec

B. 0.12 gtt/sec

C. 8 gtt/sec

D. 83 gtt/sec

C. 8 gtt/sec

Which of the four compartments of the ruminant stomach is called the "true stomach"?

A. Omasum

B. Rumen

C. Abomasum

D. Reticulum

C. Abomasum

A 6-year-old cat that weighs 4 kg is currently fed with a store brand product. The cat's owner is considering purchasing food from a veterinary clinic instead, but feels that the premium product suggested by a clinic technician is too expensive. A can of the store brand food has 94 kcal and costs $0.65, and a can of the clinic's food has 578 kcal and costs $1.80. The cat's maintenance energy requirement is 238 kcal/day. The technician should tell the owner that the cost of the clinic's food is:

A. one quarter of the cost of the store brand.

B. one half of the cost of the store brand.

C. one and one half times the cost of the store brand.

D. equal to the cost of the store brand.

B. one half of the cost of the store brand.

First-intention healing of wounds, as compared with second-intention healing, is:

A. slower.

B. faster.

C. similar in rate.

D. variable in rate.

B. faster.

NSAID administration is appropriate for which of the following patients?

A. Labrador retriever with hepatitis

B. Scottish terrier in renal failure

C. Doberman pinscher with von Willebrand disease

D. Welsh corgi with hip dysplasia

D. Welsh corgi with hip dysplasia

A 6-year-old female spayed cat weighs 8 lb. Given the following information:

Resting energy requirement (RER): 30 × (weight in kg) + 70

Maintenance energy requirement guide:

Adult feline 1.2 × RER

Gestation 2 × RER

Growth 2.5 × RER

if one can of cat food contains 578 kcal, how much should the cat be fed on a daily basis?

A. One third of a can

B. One half of a can

C. Two thirds of a can

D. One whole can

A. One third of a can

Which area must be prepped for a horse requiring a Caslick's operation?

A. Carpal

B. Cervical

C. Flank

D. Perineum

D. Perineum