BLOOD BANKING (MTLE - KLUBSY)

POPE INNOCENT VII

In the historical timeline of immunohematology, who is credited with performing the very first documented blood transfusion in 1492?

BRAXTON HICKS

A historic milestone in blood preservation occurred when a scientist recommended the use of sodium phosphate as a blood preservative. Who was this investigator?

KARL LANDSTEINER

The discovery of the ABO blood group system in 1901 revolutionized transfusion medicine by explaining why fatal hemolytic reactions occurred. Which scientist made this monumental discovery?

DR. CHARLES DREW

During World War II, a prominent African-American physician and scientist served as the director of the first American Red Cross blood bank. Who was this pioneer?

LOUTIT AND MOLLISON

In the year 1943, a highly significant preservative combination called Acid-Citrate-Dextrose (ACD) was introduced to blood banking. Which two scientists formulated this solution?

GIBSON

To better preserve red cell ATP levels and prolong storage, Citrate-Phosphate-Dextrose (CPD) was introduced in 1957. Which investigator developed this solution?

THE STUDY OF TRANSMISSION OF INHERITED CHARACTERISTICS

Genetics is essential to blood banking because it explains how blood groups are passed down. What is the fundamental definition of genetics?

46 CHROMOSOMES

A blood bank technologist is studying the chromosomal complement of human somatic cells. What is the normal number of human chromosomes found in a healthy somatic cell?

GENE

A segment of DNA that is arranged along a chromosome at a specific, defined position is known as a:

LOCUS

The specific physical location or position occupied by a gene on a chromosome is formally designated as the:

ALLELES

Genes residing at a specific locus that differ in their nucleotide sequence and give rise to variations of the same trait are called:

GENOTYPE

The total genetic composition of an individual, representing the full complement of DNA inherited from both the maternal and paternal lines, is called the:

PHENOTYPE

In blood banking, when a technologist performs forward typing and determines that a patient is Blood Type A, this observable or detectable serological trait represents the patient's:

CODOMINANT NATURE

Most blood group antigens follow a straightforward inheritance pattern where both inherited alleles are fully expressed on the red cell membrane without masking each other. What is this type of inheritance?

22

How many autosomes (non-sex chromosomes) are normally inherited from each parent to form the complete human genome?

GREGOR MENDEL

Who is widely universally recognized as the "Father of Genetics" for postulating the fundamental laws of inheritance through systemic hybridization experiments?

LAW OF INDEPENDENT OR RANDOM SEGREGATION

Mendel’s First Law of inheritance, which states that each gene of a pair is passed on to the next generation on its own, independent of other genes at the same locus, is the:

AUTOSOMAL RECESSIVE TRAIT

A trait that is carried on non-sex chromosomes, but is not generally seen at the phenotypic level unless the individual inherits the identical mutated allele from both parents, is classified as an:

HETEROCHROMATIN

When analyzing stained human chromosomes under a microscope, the cytogeneticist notices regions that stain as dark bands. These highly condensed, transcriptionally inactive regions are called:

ACHROMATIN

Chromosomal structural regions that stain as light bands, consist of highly condensed regions, and are usually not transcriptionally active are called:

M+N- (HOMOZYGOUS)

Anti-M reacts best with the RBC phenotype?

SEX CHROMOSOME

The 23rd chromosome is also known as?

EUCHROMATIN

Which form of chromatin represents a swollen, uncoiled state that is highly active in the synthesis of RNA via transcription?

CHROMOSOME HOMOLOGUE

Each of the individual structural members of a matching chromosome pair (one inherited from the mother, one from the father) is called a:

MEIOSIS

Which cellular division pathway is entirely unique to gametes (ova and sperm) and results in four unique daughter cells exhibiting extensive genetic variability, these are for reproductive cells?

MITOSIS

What is the fundamental process of cell replication that occurs in all nucleated somatic body cells (majority of the human cell undergoes here), producing two identical daughter cells?

G0 PHASE

A cell that has temporarily or permanently exited the active cell cycle and entered a non-dividing, resting, or quiescent state is said to be in which phase?

G1 PHASE

According to Rodak's Hematology, which phase of the cell cycle lasts approximately 6 to 8 hours (or 10 hours), serving as a period of cell growth and active synthesis of metabolic components necessary for replication?

S PHASE (DNA SYNTHESIS)

During which specific sub-stage of Interphase does actual DNA replication take place, causing metabolic and growth activities to drop to minimal levels?

G2 PHASE

During which specific sub-stage of Interphase; a relatively short period lasting approximately 4 to 5 hours in which the tetraploid DNA is checked for proper replication and damage

INTERPHASE

Which stage/phase of cell cycle is known as RESTING PHASE?

METAPHASE

Which stage/phase of cell cycle is known as ACTIVE PHASE?

CENTROMERE

Along with the replication of genomic DNA, which cellular organelle is also systematically duplicated during the S stage of the cell cycle?

PROPHASE

During which active phase of mitosis do the nucleolus and nuclear envelope completely disintegrate, while centrioles begin moving to opposite poles of the cell?

METAPHASE

A medical laboratory scientist is performing a chromosomal analysis (karyotyping) on a bone marrow sample. At which stage of mitosis should cell division be arrested, as this is when sister chromatids align along the equatorial plate?

ANAPHASE

At which active stage of mitosis happens that sister chromatids separate and move to opposite poles?

TELOPHASE

At which active stage of mitosis happens that the chromatin patterns reappear and arrive at opposite poles?

MUTATION

What is the general term utilized to describe any structural or biochemical change in the sequence of DNA within an organism?

MUTANT

An organism whose DNA sequence has been altered and is now distinctly different from that of the original parent organism is termed a:

POINT MUTATION

What is the simplest type of genetic mutation, characterized by a change in only a single nucleotide within the DNA sequence?

• SUBSTITUTIONS

• INSERTION

• DELETION

A point mutation can involve several types of changes. Which of the following operations are included under the classification of point mutations?

TRANSITION

A molecular point mutation is discovered where a single purine base (Adenine) is substituted for another purine base (Guanine). This specific type of point mutation is termed a:

TRANSVERSION

If a molecular mutation causes a purine base (e.g., Adenine) to be substituted by a pyrimidine base (e.g., Cytosine), this specific alteration is known as a:

MISSENSE MUTATION

A point mutation occurs in a gene, resulting in a single base change in a codon. This change alters the amino acid inserted into the corresponding peptide chain. This is known as a:

TRANSCRIPTION

What is the primary cellular process by which the genetic code contained within a double-stranded DNA molecule is enzymatically copied into a complementary single strand of messenger RNA (mRNA)?

TRANSLATION

What is the primary cellular process by which RNA transcripts are turned into proteins and peptides, this is the structural and functional molecules of the cell?

ROUGH ENDOPLASMIC RETICULUM (SITE OF RIBOSOMES)

Translation is the vital cellular process by which RNA transcripts are turned into proteins and peptides. In which specific cellular organelle/site does translation take place?

1. INITIATION

2. ELONGATION

3. TERMINATION

The process of ribosomal translation of an mRNA transcript into a functional peptide chain involves which three major sequential steps?

001

The International Society of Blood Transfusion (ISBT) assigns a unique 3-digit numerical designation to each recognized blood group system. What is the ISBT system number for the ABO blood group system?

MNS

Which blood group system is assigned the ISBT number 002, possesses 50 distinct antigens, and has its genes located on chromosome 4q31.21?

004

The Rh blood group system is critically important in transfusion medicine. What is the ISBT number assigned to the Rh system?

9q34.2

What is the ISBT chromosomal location of ABO?

1p36.11

What is the ISBT chromosomal location of Rh?

CD235a and CD235b

What are the specific cluster of differentiation (CD) numbers associated with the MNS blood group system glycophorins?

56

How many blood group antigens are currently recognized within the Rh blood group system (ISBT 004), making it one of the most polymorphic systems?

CHROMOSOME 1

The genes that code for the Rh blood group antigens (RHD and RHCE) are located on which human chromosome?

030

The Rh blood group system is critically important in transfusion medicine. What is the ISBT number assigned to the Rh associated glycoprotein system?

CHROMOSOME 6

The genes that code for the Rh associated glycoproteins (RHAG) are located on which human chromosome?

BLOOD GROUP

This usually refers to an individual’s combination of Red Blood Cell (RBC) surface antigens?

DRUG

According to FDA; blood is considered _____ since it has therapeutic application?

ABO

Which blood group system remains the most important of all blood group systems in transfusion medicine because its antibodies can cause immediate, fatal reactions?

IMMEDIATE AND INTRAVASCULAR HEMOLYSIS TYPE OF HTR

ABO incompatibility is clinically dangerous because it is associated with which type of transfusion reaction?

ABO

MOST COMMON cause of HTR and (Hemolytic Disease of Newborn)?

ABO IS THE MOST COMMON CAUSE, BUT Rh is THE MOST SEVERE CAUSE

Regarding Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn (HDN), how do the ABO and Rh blood group systems compare in terms of frequency and clinical severity?

SPECIMEN: PATIENT RED CELLS

REAGENT: COMMERCIAL ANTI SERA (ANTI-A, ANTI-B)

A medical technologist is preparing to perform ABO Forward (Front/Direct) Typing. What are the correct specimen and reagent requirements for this procedure?

• TRYPAN OR METHYLENE BLUE FOR ANTI A

• FLAVIN FOR ANTI-B

Commercial Anti-A reagent is artificially colored blue, while Anti-B reagent is colored yellow. Which specific dyes are added to these reagents to prevent technician errors?

DETECTS ABO ANTIGENS

What is the Uses of ABO Forward (Front/Direct) Typing?

ANTIGEN A ONLY

A patient's red blood cells show a positive reaction (+) with Anti-A reagent and a negative reaction (0) with Anti-B reagent. What is the patient’s ABO antigen profile?

ANTIGEN B

If a patient's forward typing results show no agglutination (0) with Anti-A and a strong positive reaction (+) with Anti-B, the patient's red blood cells possess:

AGGLUTINATION WITH BOTH ANTI-A AND ANTI-B

What forward typing profile is expected for a patient who has inherited the AB phenotype?

TYPE O

During forward blood typing, a specimen demonstrates no agglutination (0) with both Anti-A and Anti-B reagents. What is the patient's blood type?

SPECIMEN: PATIENT SERUM / PLASMA

REAGENT: COMMERCIAL RBCs (A CELLS AND B CELLS)

What are the specimen and reagent requirements for performing ABO Reverse (Back/Indirect/Serum) Typing?

INVERSELY

What is the mathematical relationship between ABO forward typing and reverse typing in a normal, healthy adult patient?

DETECTION OF ABO ANTIBODIES

What is the Uses of ABO Forward (Front/Direct) Typing?

20 SECONDS

When performing standard tube-method ABO typing, what is the standard recommended centrifugation time required to read the agglutination reaction?

TYPE O

Which blood group phenotype is designated as the universal donor of whole blood or packed red blood cells (RBCs) because it completely lacks A and B antigens?

TYPE AB

Which blood group phenotype is designated as the universal recipient/acceptor of whole blood or packed red blood cells?

TYPE AB

A trauma patient requires an emergency transfusion of fresh frozen plasma (FFP). Which blood type is considered the universal donor of plasma products because its plasma lacks Anti-A and Anti-B antibodies?

TYPE O

Conversely, which blood type is the universal recipient of plasma products because its red blood cells lack both A and B antigens?

4+

A blood bank technologist observes a tube reaction showing a single, large, solid agglutinate of red blood cells with a completely clear supernatant. How should this reaction be graded?

3+

If a serological test tube demonstrates several large aggregates with a few free erythrocytes and a completely clear supernatant, what is the correct reaction grade?

2+

A technologist shakes a blood typing tube and observes medium-sized aggregates with some free erythrocytes, backdropped by a clear supernatant. This represents a grade of:

1+

A tube shows a few small aggregates that are just visible macroscopically, alongside many free erythrocytes and a turbid, reddish supernatant. What is the correct grade?

0 (NEGATIVE)

When reading a blood banking tube, the technologist notes completely unagglutinated cells with a dark, turbid, homogeneous supernatant. This represents a grade of:

MIXED-FIELD AGGLUTINATION

A technologist observes a specific agglutination pattern characterized by small-to-large agglutinates floating amidst a background of completely unagglutinated free red blood cells. What is this phenomenon?

HALO OR PUFF OF SMOKE

When a cell button is dislodged from the bottom of a test tube, a mixed-field reaction can look like a:

A PATIENT WHO RECEIVED:

• NON ABO TYPE

• ABO SUBGROUPS (A3)

• BONE MARROW TRANSPLANT

Which of the following clinical scenarios is a well-known cause of mixed-field agglutination in the blood bank laboratory?

PUNNET SQUARE

This refers to a presentation of the mating of different genotypes such as blood group system.

• KIDD

• BOMBAY

• LUTHERAN

What are the (3) Blood Group Systems that are known as the “SILENT GENE”?

L-FUCOSYLTRANSFERASE

The H gene codes for which specific glycosyltransferase enzyme?

BOMBAY

NO H gene =

N-ACETYL-D GALACTOSAMINE

If a patient inherits the A gene, it produces the enzyme alpha-3-N-acetylgalactosaminyltransferase. What specific immunodominant sugar does this enzyme attach to the H antigen?

D-GALACTOSE

The B gene codes for a D-galactosyltransferase enzyme. Which immunodominant sugar does this enzyme attach to the H precursor substance?

1. O

2. A2

3. B

4. A2B

5. A1

6. A1B

Rank the ABO blood group phenotypes in order of the greatest to least amount of remaining, unconverted H antigen on their red blood cells:

1. O

2. A

3. B

4. AB

Rank the normal frequencies of the ABO blood groups in the general population from most common to least common:

H ANTIGENS

The actual precursor on which A and B antigens are made?

TYPE 1: BETA-1,3 LINKAGE

TYPE 2: BETA-1,4 LINKAGE

Immunohematologists classify precursor carbohydrate chains into Type 1 and Type 2 configurations. What is the structural difference between these chains?

ERYTHROCYTE PRECURSORS

Where are Type 2 precursor chains synthesized and expressed in the human body?

PLASMA

Where are Type 1 precursor chains synthesized and expressed in the human body?

H, A, B, Se, and Lewis genes

Which controlling genes regulate the synthesis and expression of ABO antigens on Type 1 precursor chains in bodily secretions?