Antiepileptic drugs kinetics exam 4

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Last updated 7:27 PM on 4/8/26
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132 Terms

1
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define a seizure

sudden change in behavior caused by electrical hypersynchronization of neuronal networks in the cerebral cortex

2
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What is epilepsy

two unprovoked seizures occurring more than 24 hours apart

3
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What is status epilepticus

failure of the mechanisms responsible for seizing termination or by the initiation of mechanisms, which lead to abnormally prolonged seizures after 5 minutes

4
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What is always the initial therapy when a patient presents with an active seizure

benzodiazepine

5
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most AEDs require

titration

6
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What are some indications for obtaining a drug level?

1. initiating therapy

2. uncontrolled seizures despite high doses

3. seizures in a previously controlled patient

4. documentation of toxicity

5. assessment of adherence

6. after dose changes

7. concomitant drugs added or removed

7
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describe the bioavailability of carbamazepine

highly bioavailable

8
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Describe the protein binding of carbamazepine

highly protein bound to albumin

9
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what is special about carbamazepine's elimination

induces its own metabolism

10
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the more carbamazepine a patient takes, the ________ its half life becomes

shorter

11
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What is the metabolite of carbamazepine

CBZE

12
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What is true of CBZE

1. anti-epileptic

2. neurotoxic

13
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What is repsonsible for clearing carbamazepine

CYP3A4

14
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CYP3A4 inhibitors will _________ carbamazepine serum concentrations

increase

15
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CYP3A4 inducers will _________ carbamazepine serum concentrations

decrease

16
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What happens when carbamazepine is taken with valproate

CBZE builds up and can be toxic

17
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What may occur in about 40% of patients taking carbamazepine

diurnal fluctuations

18
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Why does diurnal fluctuation happen with carbamazepine

changes in protein binding, metabolism, and mild anticholinergic effects that decrease absorption in the GI tract

19
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What time of day should carbamazepine be taken and why?

at bedtime because serum levels and CNS toxicity may increase gradually throughout the day

20
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time to steady state of carbamazepine depends on....

half-life and completion of autoinduction

21
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_______ of carbamazepine are recommended to ensure that concentrations are always _______

troughs, above the lower end of the therapeutic range

22
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troughs of carbamazepine should be measured _________

weekly while titrating to the desired maintenance dose

23
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What is the common carbamazepine target

4-8 mg/L

24
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when giving a loading dose of carbamazepine, you target a concentration of ______ within ______

4mg/L within 1-2 hours

25
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What medication allows for the fastest oral loading dose of any AED

carbamazepine

26
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What is an appropriate way to load carbamazepine (in monotherapy)

8mg/kg followed by maintenance dose in 12 hours

27
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what electrolyte abnormality can cause seizures

hyponatremia

28
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second generation ADEs have ________

more predictable pharmacokinetics

29
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Select what is generally true of second generation ADEs

1. oral absorption tends to be complete

2. concomitant administration of food slows absorption but does not reduce it

3. protein binding is less prominent

4. elimination is first order

30
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What second generation ADE is related to carbamazepine

oxcarbazepine

31
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What is the titration of oxcarbazepine

increase by 600 mg weekly

32
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Drug concentration of oxcarbazepine are...

not readily available

33
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What dose adjustment is necessary for oxcarbazepine

50% dose reduction if GFR < 30mL/min

34
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the adverse effects of oxcarbazepine are similar to ________ but _________

similar to carbamazepine but decreased frequency and severity

35
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neurological adverse reactions are notes with oxcarbazepine in which instances

1. high doses

2. fast up-titration

3. during conversion to monotherapy

36
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___________ of oxcarbazepine is responsible for its AED activity

the active metabolite

37
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_________ undergoes __________ to produce its active metabolite ________

oxcarbazepine, arylketone reduction, MHD

38
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MHD, the active metabolite of ___________, is inactivated more quickly when taken with ____________

oxcarbazepine, taken with carbamazepine, phenobarbital, and phenytoin

39
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Lamotrigine should be dose adjusted in

liver impairment

40
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What is true of lamotrigine

autoinduction when monotherapy decreases half life by 25%

3 multiple choice options

41
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What is true of the titration of lamotrigine

must be up-titrated slowly

42
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What is the most common adverse reaction with lamotrigine

morbilliform rash

43
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If a patient taking lamotrigine develops a ____________, the agent should be __________

marbilliform rash, stopped immedietly and not rechallenged

44
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Which agents will induce lamotrigine metabolism

1. carbamazepine

2. phenytoin

3. phenobarbital

4. primidone

45
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Which agents will inhibit lamotrigine metabolism and the agent should therefore be titrated slower than usual

valproic acid

46
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Topiramate has a ________

wider safety profile

47
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topiramate needs dosage adjustment in

GFR < 70mL/min

48
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What is true of the adverse reaction profile of topiramate

high incidence of CNS adverse reactions

49
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When is a patient most likely to experience CNS related adverse effects when on topiramate

rapid upward titration

50
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Other than CNS effects, what can be seen with topiramate

metabolic acidosis

51
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Topiramate concentrations are significantly reduced when used with

1. phenytoin

2. carbamazepine

3. phenobarbital

52
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Which AED distributes into red blood cells

zonisamide

53
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zonisamide should be avoided in patients with

sulfonamide allergy

54
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What adverse effects are seen with zonisamide

1. dose related CNS effects

2. metabolic acidosis

3. renal stones

55
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With doses of Zonisamide over __________, distribution is greatly __________ due to __________

> 800mg/day, altered, saturable binding

56
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What is true of the AUC and Cmax of zonisamide

increase disproportionally compared to therapeutic doses because erythrocytes become saturated

57
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The pro of using zonisamide is

faster titration schedule

58
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what is important to remember when dosing zonisamide

time to Cmax is delayed by food

59
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What is the #1 antiepileptic drug

levetiracetam

60
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What is true of dosage adjustments with levetiracetam

should be renally adjusted

61
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What is the mechanism of levetiracetam

exact mechanism is truly unknown

62
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The elimination of levetiracetam is

exclusively extrahepatically

63
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Loading dose of levetiracetam provides

fast achievement of serum concentrations

64
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What is the recommended loading dose of levetiracetam

20-60mg/kg

65
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What is the MD of levetiracetam

500-3000mg daily divided into 2 doses

66
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What CYP metabolizes lacosamide

CYP2C19

67
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What are the dosage adjustments needed with lacosamide

renal and hepatic

3 multiple choice options

68
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Common adverse effects of lacosamide are

dose related CNS symptoms

69
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Use caution with lacosamide in

patients with underlying heart disease

70
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what agent should be used with caution in patients with underlying heart disease

lacosamide

71
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why is timing of treatment with seizures so important

changes in receptor trafficking and neuropeptide expression

72
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what happens to the efficacy of benzodiazepines the longer a seizure persists

reduced efficacy

73
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Why are benzodiazepines less effective the longer a seizure persists

GABA internalization occurs during prolonged status epilepticus

74
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_________ is internalized in a seizure, but __________ is inducted

GABA, NMDAR

75
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What occurs from the NMDAR induction in prolonged status epilepticus

enhanced excitability and increased intracellular calcium decreases GABA receptors

76
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Neurotransmitter receptor modification from prolonged seizures results in ________

modified GABA and glutamate receptors which mimics the composition of an immature brain where excitation predominates over inhibition

77
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Which of the following can you utilize a loading dose

carbamazepine

3 multiple choice options

78
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which is IV

fosphenytoin

1 multiple choice option

79
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_____ mg of fosphenytoin = 1mg of phenytoin

1.5mg

80
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Phenytoin equivalent dose =

fosphenytoin dose (mg) / 1.5

81
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absorption of phenytoin is impacted by

impacted by food

82
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phenytoin rapidly distributes where

into the brain

83
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phenytoin kinetics are

capacity limited

84
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in phenytoin, small dose increases can

lead to huge/disproportionate increases in concentration

85
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What is the therapeutic range of phenytoin

10-20 mg/L

86
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What is the free phenytoin therapeutic level

1-2 mg/L

87
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What is the therapeutic total phenytoin concentration

10-20 mg/L

88
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What is the active form of phenytoin responsible for efficacy and side effects

free

1 multiple choice option

89
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Lower albumin results in

higher free phenytoin

90
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What is the corrected phenytoin equation

phenytoin observed / (albumin x 0.25) + 0.1

91
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When should the binding affinity of albumin with phenytoin be considered

CrCl < 25 ml/min

92
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When do you obtain a peak phenytoin concentration

obtained 2 hours after administration of the loading dose

93
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What is the loading dose equation for phenytoin

(Vd x actual body weight x target Cp) / (F)(S)

94
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What is the s of phenytoin

0.92

95
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What is the loading dose of fosphenytoin

20mg PE/kg

96
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What is the max infusion rate of phenytoin

50 mg/min

97
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What is the max infusion rate of fosphenytoin

150 mg/min

98
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why is fosphenytoin IV preferred over phenytoin

1. does not contain propylene glycol

2. no filter required

3. max infusion rate of 150mg/min

99
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A consideration with using fosphenytoin instead of phenytoin is

it takes several minutes for conversion

100
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An oral loading dose of phenytoin is....

NOT for status epilepticus