1C8X3 CDC Vol. 4 Unit Review Questions (Deployable Radar, Airfield & Weather Systems)

(601) The Air Force (AF) organizes, trains, equips, and sustains its forces to be ready to meet

a. any upcoming national security challenges.

b. requests by the governor of each state.

c. local management forces.

d. foreign rotational surges.

a. any upcoming national security challenges.

(601) Which deployment process allows Airmen to deploy with supervisors and other members assigned to their unit and base?

a. Predictability.

b. Deployment-to-dwell (D2D).

c. Mission capability (MISCAP) reporting.

d. Air and space expeditionary force (AEF) teaming.

d. Air and space expeditionary force (AEF) teaming.

(601) The three main principles that provide the foundation for how the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) is structured and executed are

a. predictability, equitability, and short-notice requests.

b. equitability, short-notice requests, transparency.

c. predictability, equitability, and transparency.

d. scope, size of needed force, units tasked.

c. predictability, equitability, and transparency.

(601) Which teams have unique combat and support capabilities that may require a different battle rhythm than the normal AF air and space expeditionary force (AEF) schedule?

a. Contingency management teams.

b. Theater installation groups.

c. Airfield enabler teams.

d. Demand force teams (DFT).

d. Demand force teams (DFT).

(602) What is the primary mission of the air and space operations center (AOC)?

a. Provide the Joint Force Air Component Commander (JFACC) with the tools necessary to fight and win a major theater war coordinating with all land, sea, and air forces.

b. Manage acceptable levels of risk necessary to fight and win a major theater war. c. Enforce operations security to ensure safe and secured communications.

d. Deploy flying wings to fight and win a major theater war.

a. Provide the Joint Force Air Component Commander (JFACC) with the tools necessary to fight and win a major theater war coordinating with all land, sea, and air forces.

(602) What defines a capability composed of personnel and/or equipment requirements needed to support the national military strategy during deliberate, crisis action, and rotational planning?

a. Unit line item (ULI).

b. Unit type code (UTC).

c. Air and space operations center (AOC).

d. Logistics force packaging system (LOGFOR).

b. Unit type code (UTC).

(603) What does the Deployable Air Traffic Control and Landing Systems (DATCALS) mission provide to operational forces at host nation or bare base locations?

a. Basic airfield services and combat airspace support to the theater air and space operations center (AOC).

b. The capability to identify, sequence, and provide navigation beacons in remote mountain terrains.

c. A dedicated communications net to ensure safe and efficient flow of air traffic. d. Final approach guidance only in good weather.

a. Basic airfield services and combat airspace support to the theater air and space operations center (AOC).

(603) Which piece of equipment brings a combination of range, precision, low signature, and control to the war fighter's arsenal, while providing the capability to hold at risk an enemy's war making potential?

a. Radar Approach Control (RAPCON) System.

b. Ground Theater Air Control System (GTACS).

c. AN/MSN-7 Mobile Air Traffic Control Tower.

d. AN/TPN-48 Mobile Tactical Air Navigation Beacon.

b. Ground Theater Air Control System (GTACS).

(603) Which option is not a major function of the Ground Theater Air Control System (GTACS)?

a. Command planning and direction.

b. Aircraft control and warning.

c. Global mobility readiness.

d. Tactical airlift.

c. Global mobility readiness.

(603) What is the primary mission of engineering and installation (E&I) units?

a. Install, reconstitute, and test critical command and control systems.

b. Open and/or operate critical command and control systems.

c. Install, reconstitute, and test airfields or airbases.

d. Open and/or operate airfields or airbases.

a. Install, reconstitute, and test critical command and control systems.

(603) Which action describes a responsibility of the air and space operations center (AOC)?

a. Disseminating tasking orders.

b. Assessing the joint force commander's (JFC) viability.

c. Developing decentralized support for United States (US) operations.

d. Providing a careful reaction to situations by determining the most important course of action.

a. Disseminating tasking orders.

(603) Who normally establishes an air and space operations center (AOC) weapon system help desk to provide systems user with a central one-stop service point for all command and control (C2) systems and services?

a. C2 focal point.

b. Command focal point.

c. Communications focal point (CFP).

d. Communications, C2 focal point.

c. Communications focal point (CFP).

(604) The two main capabilities that unmanned aircraft or unmanned aerial vehicles provide are

a. reconnaissance and in-flight refueling.

b. reconnaissance and intelligence gathering.

c. intelligence gathering and in-flight refueling.

d. intelligence gathering and autonomous battle planning.

b. reconnaissance and intelligence gathering.

(605) The AN/MPN-14K Landing Control Central (LCC) consists of what two trailers?

a. Operations (OPS) and radar.

b. Radar and surveillance.

c. Radar and maintenance.

d. OPS and surveillance.

a. Operations (OPS) and radar.

(605) What is the maximum radius, in nautical miles (nmi), that each AN/MPN-14K Landing Control Central (LCC) airport surveillance radar (ASR) indicating position can display the radar and video mapper data required to locate and observe aircraft?

a. 60.

b. 100.

c. 160.

d. 200.

a. 60.

(605) When using the identification, friend or foe (IFF) equipment in the AN/MPN-14K Landing Control Central (LCC), each airport surveillance radar (ASR) indicating position can locate aircraft up to a maximum radius of how many nautical miles (nmi)?

a. 60.

b. 100.

c. 160.

d. 200.

d. 200.

(606) The AN/MPN-14K Landing Control Central (LCC) consists of which two distinct radar systems?

a. Precision approach radar (PAR) and moving target indicator (MTI).

b. PAR and ground controlled approach (GCA).

c. Airport surveillance radar (ASR) and PAR.

d. ASR and GCA.

c. Airport surveillance radar (ASR) and PAR.

(606) In the precision approach radar (PAR) transmitter group of the AN/MPN-14K Landing Control Central (LCC), the waveguide switch connects one transmitter to the antenna and the other transmitter to the

a. circulator.

b. waveguide.

c. dummy load.

d. transmission line.

c. dummy load.

(606) To generate the radio frequency (RF) pulses, airport surveillance radar (ASR) transmitters in the AN/MPN-14K Landing Control Central (LCC) use

a. triggers from the precision approach radar (PAR) processor.

b. triggers from the ASR processor.

c. a detected sample from the PAR receiver.

d. a detected sample from the ASR receiver.

b. triggers from the ASR processor.

(606) Which degree range can the AN/MPN-14K Landing Control Central (LCC) airport surveillance radar (ASR) antenna be tilted?

a. 0 to +10.

b. +10 to +20.

c. +20 to +30.

d. +20 to +45.

a. 0 to +10.

(606) Which AN/MPN-14K Landing Control Central (LCC) airport surveillance radar (ASR) trailer utilizes transceivers?

a. Radar.

b. Operations (OPS).

c. Maintenance.

d. Communications.

a. Radar.

(607) When deploying either AN/TPN-19 Landing Control Central (LCC) configurations, what is the maximum distance, in miles, that the radar and operations (OPS) shelter can be separated?

a. 5.

b. 10.

c. 15.

d. 20.

b. 10.

(608) What is the range, in nautical miles (nmi), of the search radar in the AN/TPN-24 Airport Surveillance Radar (ASR)?

a. 60.

b. 100.

c. 160.

d. 200.

a. 60.

(608) What is the range, in nautical miles (nmi), of the air traffic control radar beacon set (ATCRBS) in the AN/TPN-24 Airport Surveillance Radar (ASR)?

a. 60.

b. 100.

c. 160.

d. 200.

d. 200.

(608) The separation distance must be less than how many miles, between shelters when using fiber optic cable to remote AN/TPN-24 Airport Surveillance Radar (ASR) signals?

a. 1.

b. 2.1.

c. 2.7.

d. 10.

b. 2.1.

(609) How many packages does the AN/TPN-25 Precision Approach Radar (PAR) have during transport?

a. 1.

b. 2.

c. 3.

d. 4.

a. 1.

(609) What is the maximum number of tracked aircraft the AN/TPN-25 Precision Approach Radar (PAR) can process at one time?

a. 5.

b. 6.

c. 7.

d. 8.

b. 6.

(609) The AN/TPN-25 Precision Approach Radar (PAR) transmitter multiplies the different incoming waveforms by a factor of

a. 5.

b. 10.

c. 20.

d. 48.

d. 48.

(609) What computes angle error data and provides corrective data to the antenna beam position

control circuits in the AN/TPN-25 Precision Approach Radar (PAR) track video circuits?

a. Digital moving target indicator (MTI).

b. Target data computer (TDC).

c. AN/UPM-145 Radar Test Set.

d. Phased array antenna.

b. Target data computer (TDC).

(609) When using the AN/UPM-145 Radar Test Set, which step would you take if you are connecting to a radar with a max power over +50 decibel milliwatts (dBm)?

a. Use an amplifier to boost the overall input power.

b. Use attenuators to reduce overall input power.

c. Increase the RANGE selector.

d. Reduce the RANGE selector.

b. Use attenuators to reduce overall input power.

(609) When using the AN/UPM-145 Radar Test Set, which MODE switch selection helps you ensure that the set is operating properly prior to any other operation?

a. SELF TEST.

b. ZERO TEST.

c. TEST CONFIG.

d. ZERO CONFIG.

a. SELF TEST.

(610) In the event of a prime power failure, how many minutes does the internal battery in the AN/TPN-19 Landing Control Central (LCC) operations (OPS) A and OPS B shelter allow a full power load for certain transceivers, communications control equipment, and lighting?

a. 5.

b. 10.

c. 20.

d. 30.

b. 10.

(611) When the AN/TPX-42A Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transmits two pulses out, it

should receive back

a. a coded reply from an aircraft transponder.

b. a single interrogation pulse.

c. challenge video pulses.

d. the same two pulses.

a. a coded reply from an aircraft transponder.

(611) What are the transmit and receive frequencies of the AN/TPX-42A Secondary Surveillance

Radar (SSR)?

a. Transmit 103.0 megahertz (MHz), receive 109.0 MHz.

b. Transmit 109.0 MHz, receive 103.0 MHz.

c. Transmit 1030 MHz, receive 1090 MHz.

d. Transmit 1090 MHz, receive 1030 MHz.

d. Transmit 1090 MHz, receive 1030 MHz.

(612) Which AN/TPX-42A Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) interrogation mode is continuously operable?

a. Mode 1.

b. Mode 2.

c. Mode 3/A.

d. Mode C.

d. Mode C.

(612) The mode in the AN/TPX-42A Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) that has the highest priority in the interlace sequence is

a. mode 1.

b. mode 2.

c. mode 3/A.

d. mode C.

c. mode 3/A.

(613) Which action is not a function that a controller can perform with the Indicator Control C-8625/T (A-Box)?

a. Request a particular mode of interrogation.

b. Select display of aircraft within certain altitude limits.

c. Select up to 10 discrete identity display combinations.

d. Reduce the maximum range of processing time in the video signal processor.

d. Reduce the maximum range of processing time in the video signal processor.

(613) The main difference between the Indicator Control C-8625/T (A-Box) and the Indicator Control C-10501/T (C-Box) is that the C-Box

a. is used with a fixed radar configuration using the OD-153 Plan Position Indicator.

b. allows decreased target load and selection for system optimization.

c. allows the chief controller to set the barometric setting switches.

d. allows the chief controller to override a range error.

a. is used with a fixed radar configuration using the OD-153 Plan Position Indicator.

(614) The complete AN/TPS-75 Aircraft Control and Warning System consists of how many packages in the normal transit configuration?

a. 1.

b. 2.

c. 3.

d. 4.

b. 2.

(615) Which major subsystem of the AN/TPS-75 Aircraft Control and Warning System determines the position of all aircraft within its surveillance area by transmitting a high-power pulse and then receives and decodes the reflected energy from the target?

a. Search radar.

b. Communications.

c. Local control interface group.

d. Identification, friend or foe/selective identification (IFF/SIF) feature.

a. Search radar.

(615) Which term describes the signal that is used by the AN/TPS-75 Aircraft Control and Warning System for mixing with the target returns, and is equivalent to the transmit frequency minus 32 megahertz (MHz)?

a. Frequency generator.

b. Side lobe reference (SLR).

c. Stable local oscillator (STALO) frequency.

d. Coherent local oscillator (COHO) frequency.

c. Stable local oscillator (STALO) frequency.

(615) The component used to cool the AN/TPS-75 Aircraft Control and Warning System radar transmitter is the

a. heat exchanger.

b. fan module FL2.

c. pressurized waveguide.

d. extra air conditioner designed solely for the transmitter.

a. heat exchanger.

(615) How many intermediate frequency (IF) receivers does the AN/TPS-75 Aircraft Control and Warning System have?

a. 4.

b. 7.

c. 8.

d. 12.

b. 7.

(615) Which AN/TPS-75 Aircraft Control and Warning System component computes the

HEIGHT DATA for each target return?

a. Intermediate frequency (IF) receivers.

b. Digital height readout panel.

c. External modems.

d. Post processor.

d. Post processor.

(615) Which action is not a process of the AN/TPS-75 Aircraft Control and Warning System?

a. Interrogates aircraft identification, friend or foe/selective identification feature (IFF/SIF)

transponders.

b. Decodes IFF/SIF replies for display on the indicators.

c. Transmits pulse coded IFF/SIF from transponders.

d. Receives coded IFF/SIF replies.

c. Transmits pulse coded IFF/SIF from transponders.

(615) The AN/TPS-75 Aircraft Control and Warning System intercommunications mode allows

communication between

a. one operator and two senior weapons controllers.

b. two operators and one senior weapons controller.

c. three operators and one senior weapons controller.

d. three operators and two senior weapons controllers.

b. two operators and one senior weapons controller.

(616) Which two components of the AN/TPS-75 Aircraft Control and Warning System synchronize timing signals between themselves in order to ensure they are both in phase with each other?

a. Post processor timing generator and signal processors.

b. Azimuth change and reference pulse generators.

c. Synchronization and reference generators.

d. Synchronization and signal processors.

a. Post processor timing generator and signal processors.

(616) The three pulse repetition time modes the AN/TPS-75 Aircraft Control and Warning System can operate in are

a. fixed, staggered, or burst.

b. beacon, staggered, or burst.

c. fixed, desquint, or target data.

d. beacon, desquint, or target data.

a. fixed, staggered, or burst.

(616) How is the AN/TPS-75 Aircraft Control and Warning System antenna aligned to the north?

a. Magnetically.

b. Mechanically.

c. Electronically.

d. Automatically in daily initialization.

c. Electronically.

(617) The final power amplifier (FPA) of the AN/TPS-75 Aircraft Control and Warning System boosts the transmit pulse to a

a. peak of 3 milliwatts (mW).

b. peak of 3 megawatts (MW).

c. nominal 1.6 mW.

d. nominal 1.6 MW.

b. peak of 3 megawatts (MW).

(618) Which AN/UPX-37 Interrogator Set component provides video processing, storage, and

recall capabilities?

a. Coder timer.

b. Video code processor.

c. Digital video synchronizer.

d. Digital video processor (DVP) defruiter.

d. Digital video processor (DVP) defruiter.

(618) What is the nominal volts direct current (VDC) voltage supplying the AN/UPX-37 Interrogator Set power amplifier assembly of the transmitter?

a. -52.

b. -35.

c. +35.

d. +52.

d. +52.

(618) A transformer converts the AN/UPX-37 Interrogator Set incoming 115 volts alternating current (VAC) down to what VAC voltage required to power remote controls?

a. 3.6.

b. 6.3.

c. 36.

d. 63.

b. 6.3.