BioPharm - 70q + ratio

Proverbs 16:3

B) II. natural log of plasma concentration versus time

For a drug that has first-order elimination and follows a one compartment model, which of the following plots would result in a straight line
A) I. plasma concentration versus time
B) II. natural log of plasma concentration versus time
C) III. plotted in a rectangular coordinate graphing paper

A) Plasma

For the body fluid compartments, which comprises the lowest percentage in a typical 70-kg person?
A) Plasma
B) Intracellular fluid
C) Extracellular fluid
D) Total body fluid

A) 1.5-2

In the presence of food, the stomach pH is about ______, due to hydrochloric acid secreted by parietal cells:
A) 1.5-2
B) 2-6
C) 1-4
D) 1-5

D) CYP3A4,5,6

Calcium channel blockers and protease inhibitors are common substrates of;
A) CYP2C19
B) CYP2C9
C) CYP2D6
D) CYP3A4,5,6

A) Therapeutic window

The drug concentration range between the MEC and MTC is the;
A) Therapeutic window
B) Cmax
C) Onset of action
D) Duration of action

All of the above

Which of the following factors affect the absorption?
A) I. dose
B) II. surface area
C) III. pH
D) IV. perfusion

E) All of the above

D) benzo-a-pyrene

Aromatic epoxides are highly reactive and will react with macromolecules, possibly carcinogenic;
A) benzoquinone
B) p-aminobenzoic acid
C) p-aminosalicylic acid
D) benzo-a-pyrene

D) albumin

Anionic drugs and weak acids are more likely to bind to:
A) globulin
B) lipoprotein
C) alpha-1-acid-glycoprotein
D) albumin

C) membrane thickness

Which of the following factors with which the rate of transport has an inverse relationship?
A) diffusion coefficient
B) membrane thickness
C) surface area
D) concentration gradient

III. lying on the right side

IV. spicy food

Factors that enhance the rate of gastric emptying:
A) I. high protein and fat
B) II. heavy exercise
C) III. lying on the right side
D) IV. spicy food

C) Urinary pH is high

Weak bases are reabsorbed best into the bloodstream when:
A) Urinary pH is low
B) Gastric pH is high
C) Urinary pH is high
D) Gastric pH is low

I. Cardiac output

III. Regional blood flow

What are the 2 important physiologic factors affecting distribution?
A) I. Cardiac output
B) II. Protein binding
C) III. Regional blood flow
D) IV. Volume of distribution

A) systemic circulation

Significant first-pass metabolism means that much of the drug's metabolism occurs before its arrival at the:
A) systemic circulation
B) hepatocyte
C) portal blood
D) liver lobule

A) Active transport

It plays an important role in the gastrointestinal absorption and in the renal and biliary secretion of many drugs and metabolites:
A) Active transport
B) Facilitated diffusion
C) Vesicular transport
D) Convective transport

D) Terminal elimination rate constant

Which of the following is the best definition of beta in the two-compartment model?
A) Average elimination rate constant
B) Terminal half-life
C) Initial rate constant of elimination
D) Terminal elimination rate constant

C) Partition coefficient

It is a physical property that measures the ratio of the solubility of the drug in the oil phase and in the aqueous phase;
A) Diffusion coefficient
B) Dissolution coefficient
C) Partition coefficient
D) Permeation coefficient

D) Rate-limiting step

The process with the slowest rate constant in a system of simultaneous kinetic processes:
A) Accumulation
B) Lag time
C) Bioequivalence
D) Rate-limiting step

D) 2-3 hours

Based on physiology, how many hour/s is the normal gastric emptying time?
A) 4-5 hours
B) 1-2 hours
C) 3-4 hours
D) 2-3 hours

C) Absolute bioavailability

The ratio of AUC of the orally administered drug over AUC of the intravenously administered drug:
A) Partial bioavailability
B) Relative bioavailability
C) Absolute bioavailability
D) All of the choices

III. iodopyracet

IV. PAH

Clinically, active tubular reabsorption is measured using which of the following drugs?
I. inulin
II. creatinine
III. iodopyracet
IV. PAH

B) Biopharmaceutics

The study of the relationship between the nature and intensity of a drug's effects and various drug formulations or administration factors:
A) Pharmacodynamics
B) Biopharmaceutics
C) Clinical pharmacokinetics
D) Pharmacokinetics

C) Oxazepam

Pharmacologically active drugs may be metabolized into another active drug. Such is the case of codeine turning to morphine and diazepam into _____
A) Lorazepam
B) Flunazepam
C) Oxazepam
D) Alprazolam

B) First-order process

When drug concentration is low relative to the enzyme concentration, the rate of metabolism is;
A) Third-order process
B) First-order process
C) Second-order process
D) Zero-order process

D) Glomerular filtration

Inulin and creatinine clearances reflect;
A) Active tubular secretion
B) Active tubular reabsorption
C) Effective renal plasma flow
D) Glomerular filtration

D) Henderson-Hasselbalch

For drugs that act as weak electrolytes, such as weak acids and bases, the extent of ionization influences the drug's diffusional permeability may follow:
A) Van hoff's
B) Noyes-Whitney
C) Fick's
D) Henderson-Hasselbalch

C) First absorbed into the systemic circulation

When a drug is administered by an extravascular route of administration (eg, peroral), the drug must be;
A) Completely systemically absorbed
B) Erratically absorbed
C) First absorbed into the systemic circulation
D) Instantaneously bioavailable

A) Extent of systemic drug absorption

Which of the following statements most likely describe the area under the curve (AUC)?
A) Extent of systemic drug absorption
B) Rate and extent of systemic drug absorption
C) Rate of systemic drug absorption
D) All of the above

D) Digoxin

The following are examples of drugs undergoing enterohepatic circulation excretion, except:
A) Morphine
B) Indomethacin
C) Imipramine
D) Digoxin

A) decreases while the fraction of drug eliminated remains constant

With a drug that follows first-order elimination, the amount of drug eliminated per unit of time:
A) decreases while the fraction of drug eliminated remains constant
B) remains constant while the fraction of drug eliminated decreases
C) decreases while the fraction of drug eliminated decreases
D) remains constant while the fraction of drug eliminated increases

C) One-compartment model

The most commonly used model in clinical pharmacokinetics situations is the:
A) Multi-compartment model
B) All of the choices
C) One-compartment model
D) Two-compartment model

A) concentrations to drug effect

Pharmacodynamics refers to the relationship of drugs:
A) concentrations to drug effect
B) dose to drug concentration in plasma
C) dose to drug concentration at the receptor site
D) dose to drug effect

A) Absolute availability

A term used for the systemic availability of a drug after extravascular administration compared to IV dosing;
A) Absolute availability
B) Respective availability
C) Relevant availability
D) Relative availability

D) Colon

Drugs that are absorbed well in this region are good candidates for an oral sustained-release dosage form:
A) Esophagus
B) Rectum
C) Oral cavity
D) Colon

B) Allopurinol

The mechanism of action of this drug is to inhibit the activity of xanthine oxidase which will prevent the conversion of xanthine to uric acid;
A) Colchicine
B) Allopurinol
C) Benzo-a-pyrene
D) Acetaminophen

C) Liberation

It is defined as the release of a drug from its dosage form;
A) Distribution
B) Dissolution
C) Liberation
D) Absorption

C) Therapeutic alternative

Drug products containing different active ingredients that are indicated for the same therapeutic or clinical objectives;
A) Bioequivalent
B) Pharmaceutical equivalent
C) Therapeutic alternative
D) Pharmaceutical alternative

C) Mostly occurring when the elimination system is saturated

Which of the following statements does NOT describe First-order kinetics?
A) Drug concentrations decline linearly in semilog graphing paper
B) 95% of the drugs in use at therapeutic concentrations are eliminated by this process
C) Mostly occurring when the elimination system is saturated
D) 1/hr is the unit for elimination rate constant

C) Passive diffusion

It is the major absorption process for most drugs:
A) Facilitated diffusion
B) Active transport
C) Passive diffusion
D) Convective transport

C) Cytochrome P-450

Hepatic microsomal drug-metabolizing enzyme system responsible for the oxidation/reduction of xenobiotics;
A) Lipase ATPase
B) Cytochrome P-450
C) Plasma
D) cholinesterase

II. St. John's wort

IV. Rifampicin

Enzyme inducers:
A) I. Grapefruit juice
B) II. St. John's wort
C) III. Macrolides
D) IV. Rifampicin

A) Michaelis-Menten Principle

It can be used to determine the mechanism of enzyme inhibition and transporter inhibition.
A) Michaelis-Menten Principle
B) Dissolution rate
C) Fick's Law
D) Noyes Whitney Equation

B) glucuronidation

Which of the following is not a Phase I reaction?
A) reduction
B) glucuronidation
C) hydrolysis
D) oxidation

D) Ion-pair transport

A type of transport wherein a drug forms electrochemical neutral complexes with endogenous substances of the GIT and that these neutral complexes are then absorbed by passive diffusion;
A) Passive diffusion
B) Active transport
C) Convective transport
D) Ion-pair transport

I. An active drug to a more reactive intermediate

II. An inactive drug to an active drug

III. An active drug into less active/inactive metabolite

Metabolism can transform;
A) I. An active drug to a more reactive intermediate
B) II. An inactive drug to an active drug
C) III. An active drug into less active/inactive metabolite
D) All of the above

A) The rate constant of drug elimination from the body

The method of back-extrapolation is used to calculate:
A) The rate constant of drug elimination from the body
B) The amount of drug present in specific organs
C) The area under the plasma concentration versus time curve
D) All of the choices

B) rate constant for drug transfer from central compartment to peripheral compartment

With a two-compartment model, K21 represents the:
A) rate constant for drug transfer from peripheral compartment to central compartment
B) rate constant for drug transfer from central compartment to peripheral compartment
C) first portion of the natural log of plasma drug concentration versus time curve, where the log concentration rapidly declines
D) elimination rate constant

D) pharmacokinetics

The study of the time course of drug absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion is called:
A) kinetic homogeneity
B) pharmacodynamics
C) drug concentration
D) pharmacokinetics

A) Noyes-Whitney equation

What governs the principle of dissolution?
A) Noyes-Whitney equation
B) Van Hoff's equation
C) Henderson-Hasselbalch equation
D) Second Fick's law

B) Five (4-5 half-lives)

Steady-state plasma concentration is approximately reached when the continuous infusion has been given for at least how many half-lives of the drug?
A) Three
B) Five
C) Ten
D) Two

A) Duodenum

What area of the GIT is most favorable for the absorption of drugs?
A) Duodenum
B) Colon
C) Jejunum
D) Ileum

III. small doses given at a short dosing interval

IV. small doses very frequently

Which of the following dosing techniques results in smaller fluctuations between peak and trough plasma levels at steadystate concentration?
A) I. large doses given at a long dosing interval
B) II. large doses relatively less frequently
C) III. small doses given at a short dosing interval
D) IV. small doses very frequently

C) Bioavailability

Which of the following parameters significantly affect the absorption?
A) Cmax
B) AUC
C) Bioavailability
D) Tmax

D) Paracetamol (Acetaminophen)

Upon aromatic hydroxylation this drug is converted to Nacetyl-p-benzo-quinone-imine causes hepatic necrosis;
A) Ampicillin
B) Morphine
C) Procainamide
D) Paracetamol

B) creatinine clearance

What parameter measures glomerular filtration?
A) creatine clearance
B) creatinine clearance
C) body clearance
D) blood urea nitrogen

C) Urinary pH is low

Weak acids are reabsorbed best into the bloodstream when:
A) Urinary pH is high
B) Gastric pH is high
C) Urinary pH is low
D) Gastric pH is low

D) I and III

• I. one-half the maximum response is achieved

• III. potency of the drug

The EC50 refers to which of the following?
A) I. one-half the maximum response is achieved
B) II. maximal effect is achieved
C) III. potency of the drug
D) I and III

D) fraction of the administered drug that reaches the systemic circulation

Which of the following statements best describes F?
A) amount of administered drug that reaches the systemic circulation
B) rate of absorption of the administered drug into the systemic circulation
C) speed at which the administered drug reaches the systemic circulation
D) fraction of the administered drug that reaches the systemic circulation

B) Pinocytosis

Which of the following does NOT require a drug to be in solution form prior to absorption?
A) Carrier mediated transport
B) Pinocytosis
C) Convective transport
D) Passive transport

C) Absorption window

It refers to the segment of the GIT from which the drug is well absorbed and beyond which the drug is either poorly absorbed or not absorbed at all:
A) Ileum
B) Jejunum
C) Absorption window
D) Duodenum

II and IV

Which of the following routes of administration may NOT undergo first-pass metabolism?
A) I. intravenous
B) II. peroral
C) III. oral
D) IV. rectal

D) Methylation

The following are Phase I biotransformation reactions, except:
A) Oxidation
B) Hydrolysis
C) Reduction
D) Methylation

A) renal and biliary

Two important routes of drug excretion are:
A) renal and biliary
B) biliary and metabolic
C) renal and metabolic
D) hepatic and tubular secretion

B) Drug X is a prodrug

Drug X is administered to the patient SQ. It has to be converted first by the liver in order for the pharmacologic activity to occur. Its way out of the body is through the passing of stool. Given the following statements, which of the following best describes drug X?
A) Absorption of Drug X is 100%
B) Drug X is a prodrug
C) Drug X is expected to have a systemic effect
D) Drug X is most probably used as GI antibiotic

A) PAPS

Sulfation is one of the reactions classified as Phase II. In this reaction, sulfate is the conjugating agent and the high energy intermediate is ______
A) PAPS
B) UDPGA
C) SAM
D) Acetyl CoA

A) Jejunum

The part of the small intestine that is preferred for in vivo drug absorption studies:
A) Jejunum
B) Ileum
C) Colon
D) Duodenum

A) True

[TRUE or FALSE]

The portion of the drug that is bound to plasma protein like albumin is pharmacologically inactive and exhibits a limited extent of distribution.

A) True

[TRUE or FALSE]

Absorption of a drug from a tablet form involves the dissolution of the solid dosage form into GI fluids and diffusion through body fluids and membranes.

A) True

[TRUE or FALSE]
Drugs that are predominantly un-ionized at physiologic pH (7.4) have an extensive distribution when compared to drugs that are primarily ionized.

A) True

[TRUE or FALSE]
Highly perfused organs such as kidneys, liver and blood comprise what is usually known as the central compartment.

A) True

[TRUE or FALSE]
A drug with a relatively small K (long T1⁄2) takes a longer time to reach steady-state than a drug with a large K.

B) fraction of the administered drug that reaches the systemic circulation

Which of the following statements best describes F?
A) amount of administered drug that reaches the systemic circulation
B) fraction of the administered drug that reaches the systemic circulation
C) rate of absorption of the administered drug into the systemic circulation
D) speed at which the administered drug reaches the systemic circulation

A) I and II

What are the 2 important physiologic factors affecting distribution?
A) I. Cardiac output and II. Regional blood flow
B) III. Protein binding and IV. Volume of distribution
C) II and III
D) II and IV

B) Michaelis-Menten Principle

It can be used to determine the mechanism of enzyme inhibition and transporter inhibition.
A) Fick's Law
B) Michaelis-Menten Principle
C) Dissolution rate
D) Noyes Whitney Equation

A) Favorable

If a weak acid has a pKa of 5.3 and the urine pH is 3, tubular reabsorption is _________;
A) Favorable
B) Insufficient data
C) Not favorable
D) The statement is irrelevant

B) AUC

Determination of this variable indicates the extent of systemic drug absorption;
A) Tmax
B) AUC
C) Cmax
D) VD

D) Plasma

For the body fluid compartments, which comprises the lowest percentage in a typical 70-kg person?
A) Total body fluid
B) Extracellular fluid
C) Intracellular fluid
D) Plasma

D) creatinine clearance

What parameter measures the glomerular filtration?
A) blood urea nitrogen
B) body clearance
C) creatine clearance
D) creatinine clearance

C) renal and biliary

Two important routes of drug excretion are:
A) hepatic and tubular secretion
B) biliary and metabolic
C) renal and biliary
D) renal and metabolic

D) systemic circulation

Significant first-pass metabolism means that much of the drug's metabolism occurs before its arrival at the:
A) hepatocyte
B) liver lobule
C) portal blood
D) systemic circulation

A) glucuronidation

Which of the following is not a Phase I reaction?
A) glucuronidation
B) hydrolysis
C) oxidation
D) reduction

III. lying on the right side and

IV. spicy food

Factors that enhance the rate of gastric emptying:
I. high protein and fat
II. heavy exercise
III. lying on the right side

IV. spicy food

B) Absolute bioavailability

The ratio of AUC of orally administered drug over AUC of intravenously administered drug:
A) Relative bioavailability
B) Absolute bioavailability
C) Partial bioavailability
D) All of the choices

C) membrane thickness

Which of the following factors in which the rate of transport has inverse relationship with?
A) concentration gradient
B) diffusion coefficient
C) membrane thickness
D) surface area

C) The rate constant of drug elimination from the body

The method of back-extrapolation is used to calculate:
A) The amount of drug present in specific organs
B) The area under the plasma concentration versus time curve
C) The rate constant of drug elimination from the body
D) All of the choices

C) rate constant for drug transfer from central compartment to peripheral compartment

With a two-compartment model, K21 represents the:
A) elimination rate constant
B) first portion of the natural log of plasma drug concentration versus time curve, where the log concentration rapidly declines
C) rate constant for drug transfer from central compartment to peripheral compartment
D) rate constant for drug transfer from peripheral compartment to central compartment

C) Terminal elimination rate constant

Which of the following is the best definition of beta in two-compartment model?
A) Average elimination rate constant
B) Initial rate constant of elimination
C) Terminal elimination rate constant
D) Terminal half-life