Practice Exam Program Quizzes

What type of ribs are the first 7 ribs?

A. Real ribs

B. True ribs

C. Floating ribs

D. False ribs

B. True ribs

Negri bodies are the major pathological changes seen in which disease?

A. rabies

B. bronchiolitis

C. croup

D. AIDS

A. rabies

Koch's postulates are used for which of the following purposes?

A. to determine if a given organism causes the given disease

B. to determine if the given organism is a bacterium or a fungus

C. to determine an organism's growth requirements

D. to determine if a given organism will produce an immune response

A. to determine if a given organism causes the given disease

What is the pathophysiology of resorption atelectasis?

A. it results from accumulation of blood, air, or and exudates into the pleural cavity

B. it is caused by a complete airway obstruction

C. it is secondary to fibrosis of the lung tissue

D. it is most often caused by a pneumonia

B. it is caused by a complete airway obstruction

Which muscle provides the powerful "push-off" used during walking?

A. tibialis posterior

B. flexor hallucis longus

C. peroneus longus

D. quadratus plantae

B. flexor hallucis longus

Which is the LEAST likely cause of dementia in the elderly?

A. stroke

B. Alzheimer's disease

C. depression

D. cerebrovascular accident

C. depression

The cell bodies of the oculomotor nerve are located within what part of the central nervous system?

A. midbrain

B. frontal lobe

C. rostral pons

D. floor of the fourth ventricle

A. midbrain

Which of the following is the most effective way to sterilize heat-sensitive liquids?

A. autoclave

B. filtration

C. iodine

D. freezing

B. filtration

Which group attaches to the first cuneiform bone in the foot?

A. fibularis (peroneus) longus and adductor hallucis muscles

B. tibialis anterior and posterior and fibularis (peroneus) longus muscles

C. tibialis anterior and quadratus plantae muscles

D. quadratus plantae and abductor hallucis

B. tibialis anterior and posterior and fibularis (peroneus) longus muscles

The portal vein results from the union of which two veins?

A. superior mesenteric and renal

B. superior mesenteric and inferior mesenteric

C. splenic and superior mesenteric

D. splenic and inferior mesenteric

C. splenic and superior mesenteric

The hip joint is classified as what type of joint?

A. plane

B. hinge

C. pivot

D. ball and socket

D. ball and socket

Which of the following forms from the embryonic ventral mesentery of the foregut?

A. transverse mesocolon

B. greater omentum

C. lesser omentum

D. gastrosplenic ligament

C. lesser omentum

The tectorial membrane is the superior continuation of what structure?

A. ligamentum nuchae

B. anterior longitudinal ligament

C. ligamentum flavum

D. posterior longitudinal ligament

D. posterior longitudinal ligament

The lymphatic vessels, which accompany the great saphenous vein, drain into which lymph nodes?

A. superficial inguinal lymph nodes

B. deep inguinal lymph nodes

C. popliteal lymph nodes

D. external iliac lymph nodes

A. superficial inguinal lymph nodes

Which lamina of the dorsal horn of the spinal cord is known as the substantia gelatinosa of Rolando?

A. I

B. II

C. IV

D. VI

B. II

A 24-year-old man is thrown from a pick-up truck during an accident and sustains an injury to the left neck, shoulder, and upper limb. Examination in the emergency department does not reveals any cuts, fractures, or dislocations, and he is sent home. The following day, he is experiencing several maladies and seeks help from you at your clinic. You perform your exam and find that the patient has sustained a lateral traction injury to the superior roots of the brachial plexus. Which of the following signs would you NOT expect to find in this patient?

A. dropping left shoulder

B. left scapula that falls laterally

C. inability to rotate the humerus medially

D. paresis of muscles of the anterior aspect of left arm

C. inability to rotate the humerus medially

The most common leukemia of children is:

A. acute myelogenous leukemia

B. acute lymphoblastic leukemia

C. chronic myelogenous leukemia

D. chronic lymphoblastic leukemia

B. acute lymphoblastic leukemia

MCH class II is principally found on what type of cells?

A. antigen-presenting cells

B. gut epithelial cells

C. cytotoxic T cells

D. T helper cells

A. antigen-presenting cells

Which of the following statements about interferon is INCORRECT?

A. it only works on a few specific types of virus

B. it makes cells resistant to viral infection

C. it is a species-specific molecule

D. it does not directly inactivate viruses

A. it only works on a few specific types of virus

In malabsorption syndrome, which one of the following conditions is accompanied by both infection and lymphatic obstruction as pathogenetic factors?

A. Crohn's disease

B. Whipple's disease

C. parasitic infection

D. celiac disease

B. Whipple's disease

Which of the following cells in the lung secrete pulmonary surfactant?

A. alveolar type I cells

B. alveolar type II cells

C. alveolar phagocytes

D. alveolar capillary endothelia

B. alveolar type II cells

In a nerve, the magnitude of the action potential is normally a function of which of the following?

A. magnitude of the stimulus

B. extracellular sodium concentration

C. intracellular potassium concentration

D. diameter of the axon

B. extracellular sodium concentration

Which of the following spermatogenic cells perform the first meiotic division?

A. spermatogonia

B. primary spermatocytes

C. secondary spermatocytes

D. tertiary spermatocytes

B. primary spermatocytes

Stimulation of CN X will cause which of the following effects?

A. atrial fibrillation

B. sinus bradycardia

C. cardiac rigor

D. ventricular fibrillation

B. sinus bradycardia

Which of the following laryngeal muscles abduct the vocal folds?

A. thyroarytenoid

B. transverse arytenoid

C. lateral cricoarytenoid

D. posterior cricoarytenoid

D. posterior cricoarytenoid

Nutrient absorption occurs after mastication and digestion. How are proteins absorbed from the intestinal lumen into the body?

A. protein molecules are bound to specific receptors on the intestinal epithelium and enter the body through cotransport with sodium ions

B. proteins are absorbed directly through the epithelial cell membranes by pinocytosis

C. the hydrophobic portions of the peptide structure bind passively to lipid molecules, and these hydrophobic complexes then diffuse passively through the epithelial cell membrane

D. proteins are not absorbed in the intestines

D. proteins are not absorbed in the intestines

Which gastric cells secrete pepsinogen?

A. chief cells

B. oxyntic cells

C. parietal cells

A. chief cells

Which branch of the spinal nerve carries GSE information to the muscles of the anterior and lateral trunk and all of the muscles of the limbs?

A. recurrent meningeal nerve

B. ventral ramus

C. dorsal ramus

D. rami communicans

B. ventral ramus

Trypanosoma cruzi causes which of the following diseases?

A. African sleeping sickness

B. toxoplasmosis

C. Chagas disease

D. leishmania

C. Chagas disease

Transudates are characterized by which of the following conditions?

A. increased active capillary endothelial permeability

B. polymorphonuclear leukocytes and fibrinogen afflux out of the vessel

C. high-gravity protein-rich fluid extravasation

D. passive extravasation of plasmatic fluid

D. passive extravasation of plasmatic fluid

Why would a flagellated strain be more virulent than a nonflagellated strain?

A. flagella can kill the white blood cells

B. flagella allow the bacteria to negotiate in the mucus layers protecting body surfaces

C. flagella give metabolic advantage to the bacterium

D. flagella are major adhesive structures

B. flagella allow the bacteria to negotiate in the mucus layers protecting body surfaces

Which of the following diseases is NOT one of the childhood exanthems?

A. measles

B. mumps

C. rubella

D. rubeola

B. mumps

Which correctly describes the appearance of Staphylococcus under the microscope?

A. gram-negative cocci in clusters

B. gram-positive cocci in clusters

C. gram-negative cocci in short chains

D. gram-positive cocci in short chains

B. gram-positive cocci in clusters

Which of the following is a gram-negative, oxidase-positive, facultative anaerobe?

A. Escherichia coli

B. Klebsiella pneumoniae

C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

D. Haemophilus influenzae

D. Haemophilus influenzae

A patient has a history of oat cell carcinoma of the lung of 1.5 years' duration, has muscle weakness, and has a negative serum test for anti-acetylcholine receptor antibody. What is you clinicopathological diagnosis?

A. amyloid peripheral neuropathy

B. Lambert-Eaton syndrome

C. familial periodic paralysis

D. Myasthenia gravis

B. Lambert-Eaton syndrome

The force or energy that propels gases out of the lungs during expiration is:

A. an upward contraction of the diaphragm

B. atmospheric pressure

C. elastic recoil of the tissues of the chest wall

D. contraction of the intercostal muscles

C. elastic recoil of the tissues of the chest wall

Which organ receives preganglionic sympathetic fibers?

A. pancreas

B. medulla of the adrenal gland

C. uterus

D. testis

B. medulla of the adrenal gland

Triglycerides consist of three fatty acids attached to a backbone made of which of the following?

A. glyceraldehyde

B. glycerol

C. sphingosine

D. glycogen

B. glycerol

When does the second heart sound occur?

A. during closure of the mitral valve

B. during closure of the tricuspid valve

C. during closure of the pulmonic valve

D. during the opening of the aortic valve

C. during closure of the pulmonic valve

Alpha motor neurons innervate which of the following?

A. nuclear chain fibers

B. nuclear bag fibers

C. extrafusal fibers

D. intrafusal fibers

C. extrafusal fibers

Glomerular filtration would be decreased by which of the following conditions?

A. increased plasma protein concentration

B. increased glomerular filtrate protein concentration

C. decreased glomerular hydrostatic pressure

D. increased mean arterial pressure

A. increased plasma protein concentration

Who first used pure cultures to establish the cause of microbial diseases?

A. Robert Koch

B. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek

C. Joseph Lister

D. Louis Pasteur

A. Robert Koch

Which polysaccharide has the highest proportion of alpha-1,4 glycosidic linkages?

A. starch

B. amylopectin

C. glycogen

D. amylose

D. amylose

Which of the following is NOT characteristic of alcohol hepatitis?

A. liver tenderness

B. shrunken liver

C. fever

D. risk of progressing to cirrhosis

B. shrunken liver

The neural canal is smallest and circular in shape in the ____ region of the vertebral canal.

A. cervical

B. thoracic

C. lumbar

D. sacral

B. thoracic

Which is TRUE of the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen?

A. it is greater than the affinity for carbon monoxide

B. it is increased in methemoglobin

C. it decreases as the height above sea level increases

D. it is increased in response to metabolic alkalosis

D. it is increased in response to metabolic alkalosis

The thyroid gland is derived from epithelia of what structure?

A. clefts of the first pharyngeal arch

B. dorsum of the tongue

C. pouches of the third pharyngeal arch

D. roof of the mouth

B. dorsum of the tongue

Which of the following is NOT a feature of the atlas vertebra?

A. anterior tubercle

B. bifid spinous process

C. posterior arch

D. fovea dentalis

B. bifid spinous process

In males, which of the following is the most common cause of both bilateral hydroureters and hydronephrosis?

A. acute pyelonephritis

B. benign prostatic hyperplasia

C. stones in the renal pelvis

D. hypospadias

B. benign prostatic hyperplasia

Which of the following back muscles is innervated by dorsal primary rami of spinal nerves?

A. latissimus dorsi

B. rhomboid major

C. serratus posterior superior

D. splenius capitis

D. splenius capitis

Which of the following joints is a syndesmosis?

A. axial-occipital

B. lateral atlantoaxial

C. sacroiliac

D. costotransverse

A. axial-occipital

Which describes a cell at the resting membrane potential?

A. hyperpolarized

B. depolarized

C. polarized

D. at zero volts (resting = no electrical activity)

C. polarized

A number of significant clinical conditions involve abnormalities of neurotransmitter release or reception at the myoneural junction. The neurotransmitter associated with the motor endplate is:

A. norepinephrine

B. dopamine

C. acetylcholine

D. myasthenia gravis

C. acetylcholine

Which molecule is NOT derived from cholesterol?

A. vitamin D

B. cortisol

C. leukotriene A4

D. taurocholate

C. leukotriene A4

A cereal breakfast bar containing 3 g of fat, 2 g of protein, and 30 g of carbohydrates has approximately how many calories?

A. 140

B. 150

C. 155

D. 290

C. 155

Which glucose transporter is saturated or close to saturation only after a carbohydrate-rich meal?

A. GLUT-1

B. GLUT-2

C. GLUT-3

D. GLUT-4

D. GLUT-4

Which amino acid is NOT aromatic?

A. tyrosine

B. phenylalanine

C. histidine

D. tryptophan

C. histidine

The thalamus and hypothalamus are part of which brain region?

A. prosencephalon

B. diencephalon

C. mesencephalon

D. telencephalon

B. diencephalon

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of apoptosis?

A. reduced cell size

B. nucleus fragmentation

C. intact plasma membrane

D. inflammation

D. inflammation

Multiple neural tumors, cafe au lait spots, and Lisch nodules are characteristic of which disease?

A. neurofibromatosis

B. multiple myeloma

C. amyloidosis

D. alkaptonuria

A. neurofibromatosis

Among the choices below, which one does not play a role in the replication of a bacterial chromosome?

A. UTP (uridine 5'-triphosphate)

B. reverse transcriptase

C. DNA polymerase I

D. helicases

B. reverse transcriptase

Which nerve innervates the muscles of the anterior arm?

A. musculocutaneous nerve

B. median nerve

C. ulnar nerve

D. radial nerve

A. musculocutaneous nerve

Which virus is most characterized by a bullet-shaped capsid?

A. Ebola

B. Influenza

C. rabies

D. measles

C. rabies

What is the RDA for vitamin C?

A. 60 mg/day

B. 120 mg/day

C. 500 mg/day

D, 1,200 mg/day

A. 60 mg/day

Creatine supplementation best enhances performance involving which of the following muscle types?

A. white skeletal

B. red skeletal

C. cardiac

D. smooth

A. white skeletal

The passage of a high-energy phosphate from one organic structure to another and facilitated by an enzyme is given what term?

A. oxidative phosphorylation

B. oxidase phosphorylation

C. redox phosphorylation

D. substrate-level phosphorylation

D. substrate-level phosphorylation

Which of the following is LEAST likely to be present or associated with the early stage of acute inflammation?

A. hyperemia

B. fibroblastic proliferation

C. increased neutrophils

D. tissue exudates

B. fibroblastic proliferation

Which of the following is the causative agent of genital herpes?

A. bacterium

B. fungus

C. virus

D. parasitic worm

C. virus

What kind of cartilage covers the articulating surfaces of each superior and inferior articular process of the vertebrae?

A. annular

B. reticular

C. elastic

D. hyaline

D. hyaline

Which joint of the hand is a condyloid type of synovial joint?

A. carpometacarpal joint of the thumb

B. metacarpophalangeal joint of the fourth digit

C. carpometacarpal joint of the second digit

D. third distal interphalangeal joint

B. metacarpophalangeal joint of the fourth digit

During normal blood circulation, water can migrate from the arterial side of capillary beds to the interstitial fluids, as it is pushed through the fenestrations of the capillary walls via mechanical pressure. The water returns to the plasma of the circulatory system by:

A. migrating through fenestrations of the venous capillary beds by being pushed through by mechanical pressure

B. migrating through fenestrations of the venous capillary beds by being pushed through by osmotic pressure

C. lymphatic drainage, which eventually reenters the bloodstream via the cisterna chyle

D. active transport, as the brush border of the venous capillaries moves sodium from the interstitial fluids to the venous blood, creating a strong osmotic gradient that the water then follows

B. migrating through fenestrations of the venous capillary beds by being pushed through by osmotic pressure

Water that contains harmful chemicals is called:

A. contaminated water

B. polluted water

C. potable water

D. deionized water

B. polluted water

Which amino acid is utilized in the synthesis of serotonin?

A. histidine

B. phenylalanine

C. tryptophan

D. tyrosine

C. tryptophan

Which of the following muscles does NOT attach to transverse processes of vertebrae?

A. semispinalis

B. multifidus

C. spinalis

D. intertransversarii

C. spinalis

Which of the following is NOT true regarding multiple sclerosis?

A. it is an autoimmune disease

B. it is a demyelinating disorder

C. there are neurofibrillary tangles in the cytoplasm of neurons

D. it is characterized by relapsing and remitting episodes involving the brain and spinal cord

C. there are neurofibrillary tangles in the cytoplasm of neurons

In what organ does the enzyme alpha-1-hydroxylase vitamin D3 (cholecalciferol) to its fully active hormonal form?

A. liver

B. kidney

C. pancreas

D. intestines

B. kidney

On which of the following foods can Staphylococcus aureus multiply with little competition?

A. confectionery

B. salty ham

C. egg products

D. milk

B. salty ham

Which of the following contains the cell bodies of preganglionic neurons of the parasympathetic nervous system?

A. cranial nerve nuclei and sacral spinal cord

B. cervical and thoracic spinal cord

C. cranial nerve nuclei and cervical spinal cord

D. thoracic and lumbar spinal cord

A. cranial nerve nuclei and sacral spinal cord

Which of the following is the earliest event that occurs in acute inflammation?

A. leukocytic margination

B. vasodilation

C. increased permeability

D. stasis

B. vasodilation

Eating undercooked pork is associated with an increased risk of infection with which of the following?

A. Trichinella

B. Escherichia

C. Salmonella

D. Staphylococcus

A. Trichinella

Which of the following structures separates the primary motor complex from the primary sensory cortex?

A. central sulcus

B. longitudinal fissure

C. cingulate sulcus

D. lateral fissure

A. central sulcus

Which is NOT found in the spermatic cord?

A. ilioinguinal nerve

B. pampiniform plexus of veins

C. sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves

D. genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve

A. ilioinguinal nerve

Which of the following is the most common cause of thiamine deficiency in the United States?

A. malabsorption syndromes

B. poor diet

C. alcoholism

D. pernicious anemia

C. alcoholism

Causing muscles to fatigue by stimulating all the muscle fibers in one muscle (i.e., lifting an extremely heavy weight) is explained by what mechanism?

A. increasing muscle H+ ion

B. increasing muscle K+ ion

C. depletion of muscle ATP

D. increasing the frequency of action potentials (motor endplate potentials)

B. increasing muscle K+ ion

In a catalyst reaction by an enzyme, the maximum initial velocity Vmax is which of the following?

A. it is achieved when the enzyme is saturated by a substrate

B. it is equal to two times the Michaelis-Menten constant Km

C. it is diminished in the presence of a competitive inhibitor

D. it is independent of the concentration of the enzyme utilized

A. it is achieved when the enzyme is saturated by a substrate

Ovulation occurs in response to a spike in the plasma concentration of which of the following hormones?

A. estrogen

B. luteinizing hormone

C. follicle-stimulating hormone

D. progesterone

B. luteinizing hormone

Which of the following is the correct order of frequency of childhood malignancies?

A. neuroblastoma, Wilms' tumor, retinoblastoma, leukemia

B. neuroblastoma, retinoblastoma, leukemia, Wilms' tumor

C. leukemia, neuroblastoma, retinoblastoma, Wilms' tumor

D. leukemia, retinoblastoma, neuroblastoma, Wilms' tumor

D. leukemia, retinoblastoma, neuroblastoma, Wilms' tumor

Which is true of triiodothyronine (T3)?

A. it is a peptide hormone

B. it is recognized by a membrane receptor on a target cell

C. it is elevated in the serum in goiter caused by deiodase deficiency

D. iaAT high blood concentrations, it inhibits protein synthesis and produces a negative nitrogen balance

D. iaAT high blood concentrations, it inhibits protein synthesis and produces a negative nitrogen balance

Which of the following describes glycogen?

A. it is a heteropolysaccharide

B. it is a polymer of (alpha-1-4)-linked subunits of glucose, with (alpha-1-6) branches every 24 to 30 residues

C. it has many more monosaccharides units than starch

D. it is a form of stored energy in cytoplasmic vesicles

C. it has many more monosaccharides units than starch

The sinoatrial node is located in which chamber of the heart?

A. left atrium

B. right atrium

C. left ventricle

D. right ventricle

B. right atrium

Aldosterone is secreted by which of the following endocrine structures?

A. zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex

B. parafollicular cells of the thyroid gland

C. alpha cells of the pancreatic islets

D. corticotrophs of the adenohypophysis

A. zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex

Which of the following classes of antibodies exists as a pentamer?

A. IgG

B. IgA

C. IgM

D. IgE

C. IgM

Longitudinal tears in the distal esophagus may occur in patients with severe retching or vomiting, such as chronic alcoholics. What is this condition called?

A. esophageal varices

B. Barrett's esophagus

C. Mallory-Weiss' syndrome

D. Zenker's diverticulum

C. Mallory-Weiss' syndrome

Which is NOT a characteristic of the ileum?

A. long vasa recta

B. many short loops of the vascular arcades

C. few and low plicae circulares

D. many Peyer's patches

A. long vasa recta

The number of new cases of a specific disease within a specific time period in a given population is called the:

A. prevalence

B. epidemic

C. mortality rate

D. incidence

D. incidence

The speed of muscle contraction is a function of which of the following factors?

A. resting length of the muscle fiber

B. cross-sectional diameter of the muscle

C. creatine phosphate of the muscle

D. glycolytic capacity of the muscle

A. resting length of the muscle fiber

Which condition/vitamin deficiency is NOT a correct match?

A. night blindness/vitamin A

B. hemolysis of red blood cells/vitamin D

C. hemorrhage/vitamin K

D. pellagra/niacin

B. hemolysis of red blood cells/vitamin D

Which of the following represents the action of the soleus muscle?

A. flexion of the leg at the knee joint

B. flexion of the leg at the knee and dorsiflexion of the foot at the ankle joint

C. plantarflexion of the foot at the ankle joint

D. dorsiflexion of the foot at the ankle joint

C. plantarflexion of the foot at the ankle joint

What wave is associated with ventricular physiologic and mechanical activity?

A. T and P

B. QRS and T

C. P and QRS

D. QRS only

B. QRS and T

Which of the following is a high-energy intermediate utilized in the salvage of a free nitrogenous base to elevate it to the monophosphate nucleotide level?

A. 5'-phosphoribosylamine

B. 5'-phosphoribosyl-1'-pyrophosphate

C. methenyl-tetrahydrofolate

D. formyl-tetrahydrofolate

B. 5'-phosphoribosyl-1'-pyrophosphate